100 MCQs for NTA UGC NET Political Science

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The National Testing Agency (NTA) conducts the UGC NET exam twice a year to determine the eligibility of candidates for the post of Assistant Professor and award Junior Research Fellowship (JRF). The Political Science subject is a popular choice among aspirants, and it requires thorough preparation to crack the exam.

One of the critical aspects of preparing for the NTA UGC NET Political Science exam is to understand the most expected MCQs. MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions) are a significant part of the exam, and candidates must prepare for them to secure a good rank.

In this guide, we have compiled the most expected MCQs for NTA UGC NET Political Science that will help you ace the exam. So, let’s dive in!

Question No #1: In the given following General Elections, zelectronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were used for the first time?

Option A:1982

Option B:2004

Option C:2009

Option D:2014

Answer : A

Explanation : EVMs are used for the first time in a general election in Kerala in May 1982, but because there was no particular law requiring their use, the Supreme Court invalidated the election.

Question No #2: In the following who supervises the work of the ‘Lekhpal’?

Option A:SHO of the Police Station of the area

Option B:Sarpanch of the Village Panchayat

Option C:Tehsildar

Option D:District Collector

Answer : C

Explanation : Tehsildar also known as an Executive Magistrate of the tehsil. They have to hear disputes at tehsildar’s office and supervise the work of the Lekhpal.

Question No #3: Which of the following features of the constitution has been borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935?

Option A:Office of the Governor

Option B:Rule of Law

Option C:Both 1 & 2

Option D:None of the above

Answer : C

Explanation : The constitutional post of the governor, his appointment, and his powers are mentioned in Article 152 to Article 162 and the constitutional emergency under Article 365 drew its inspiration from the 1935 Act.

Question No #4: Which one of the following statements is true?

Option A:No rights can be given to a man against the social interest

Option B:Grant of Rights has no concern with social interest

Option C:Rights can have anti-social character

Option D:Rights are a selfish claim

Answer : A

Explanation : Right is understood as being synonymous with liberty. A man cannot claim/demand rights if he does not perform duties.

Question No #5: In which aspect does Modern Liberalism NOT believe?

Option A:Social liberalism

Option B:Positive freedom

Option C:Cradle to grave welfare

Option D:Minimal state

Answer : D

Explanation : A state with the least possible amount of powers. It is a term used in political philosophy where the state’s duties are so minimal that they cannot be reduced much further.

Question No #6: “We are witnessing the end of history as such that is, the endpoint of mankind’s ideological evolution and the universalisation of western liberal democracy as the final form of human government”. Whose thesis is this?

Option A:Francis Fukuyama

Option B:Daniel Bell

Option C:Milton Friedman

Option D:A MacIntyre

Answer : A

Explanation : Fukuyama argues that history should be viewed as an evolutionary process, and that the end of history, in this sense, means that liberal democracy is the final form of government for all nations.

Question No #7: All aspects of luck, including natural ability, should be irrelevant to distributive justice’- This statement refers to the concept of:

Option A:Meritocracy

Option B:Plutocracy

Option C:Luck egalitarianism

Option D:Aristocracy

Answer : C

Explanation : Luck egalitarianism is the name of a group of theories of justice that subscribes to the idea that a just society compensates for brute luck, but does not compensate for bad outcomes that fall under the responsibility of the agent himself. Notable defenders of versions of the theory are Dworkin (2000) and Cohen (1989).

Question No #8: Which among the following is NOT a salient feature of individualist anarchism’?

Option A:Private property

Option B:Ultra liberalism

Option C:Civil disobedience

Option D:Organicism

Answer : D

Explanation : Individualist anarchism is the branch of anarchism that emphasizes the individual and their will over external determinants such as groups, society, traditions and ideological systems. Although usually contrasted to social anarchism, both individualist and social anarchism have influenced each other.

Question No #9: The theory that ‘the Earth is best understood as a living entity that acts to maintain its own existence’ is known as:

Option A:Tragedy of commons

Option B:Sustainability

Option C:Social ecology

Option D:Gaia hypothesis

Answer : D

Explanation : The Gaia hypothesis advances the idea that the Earth is best understood as a living entity that acts to maintain its own existence (Gaia is the name of the Greek goddess of the Earth). The basis for the Gaia hypothesis is that the Earth’s biosphere, atmosphere, oceans and soil exhibit precisely the same kind of self-regulating behaviour that characterises other forms of life. Gaia has maintained ‘homeostasis’, a state of dynamic balance, despite the major changes that have taken place in the solar system. The most dramatic evidence of this is the fact that although the sun has warmed up by more than 25 per cent since life began, the temperature on Earth and the composition of its atmosphere have remained virtually unchanged.

Question No #10: Which among the following countries have no written constitution?

Option A:Australia

Option B:Spain

Option C:New Zealand

Option D:France

Answer : B

Explanation : New Zealand’s constitution is not found in one document. Instead, it has a number of sources, including crucial pieces of legislation, several legal documents, common law derived from court decisions as well as established constitutional practices known as conventions. Increasingly, New Zealand’s constitution reflects the Treaty of Waitangi as a founding document of government in New Zealand. The Constitution Act 1986 is a key formal statement of New Zealand’s system of government, in particular the executive, legislature and the judiciary. The Act recognises the Queen as the Head of State of New Zealand and the Governor-General as her representative. Other laws that outline the powers and functions of the three branches of government in more detail include the State Sector Act 1988, the Electoral Act 1993, the Judicature Act 1908 and the Senior Courts Act 2016 and the District Court Act 2016. Other important legislation includes the Treaty of Waitangi Act 1975, Ombudsmen Act 1975, the Official Information Act 1982, the Public Finance Act 1989, the New Zealand Bill of Rights Act 1990, the Human Rights Act 1993. Some British laws, such as parts of Magna Carta 1297 and The Bill of Rights 1688, and the Act of Settlement 1701 and the Royal Marriages Act 1772, have been incorporated into New Zealand law by the Imperial Laws Application Act 1988.

Question No #11: Which among the following forms of government is ideal for Machiavelli?

Option A:Republic

Option B:Aristocracy

Option C:Democracy

Option D:Hereditary Monarchy

Answer : A

Explanation : Machiavelli has been wrongly criticized by many as an advocate of despotism. His preference for republican and popular government is clear in ‘Discourses’. While it is true that in “Prince” he suggests a monarchical form of government in order to consolidate and create a strong state, he discusses republican government in ‘Discourses’. A serious study of both these works shows that Machiavelli suggested monarchy only for those states where popular government would not be able to unite and form a strong state. For example, a state which faces corruption, strife and division, like Italy, the only solution is a monarchy with a strong ruler. On the other hand, peaceful states can establish republican government. He appreciated Rome and other republics which uphold the value of general good over individual prosperity. He believed that in republics, individuals are not selfish and corrupt, and they work towards achieving the common good. This is the reason behind the greatness and success of republics. Machiavelli repudiates the belief that democratic states degenerate with time. He rather argues that if people and their representatives in legislatures are regulated by law, then self-governing societies tend to be most stable. It is only when individuals act superior to law that anarchy follows. His preference for republican states over monarchy is evident when he argues that people in general are more prudent and is a better judge of situations than a prince.

Question No #12: Which of the following thinkers did not believe in women equality?

Option A:Plato and Mill

Option B:Aristotle and Hegel

Option C:Mill and Mary Wollstonecraft

Option D:Plato and Mary Wollstonecraft In “The Considerations on Representative

Answer : B

Explanation : Aristotle in his book politics, “The relation of male to female is by nature a relation of superior to inferior and ruler to ruled” Hegel’s account of the women’s role as guardian of the scared claims of the family in the phenomenology of spirit.

Question No #13: In” The consideration on representative Government”, J.S. Mill did not elaborate upon:

Option A:Ideal government based on proportional representation

Option B:Protection of minorities

Option C:Institutions of self-government

Option D:Political Economy

Answer : D

Explanation : John Stuart Mill outlined hs ideal system of governance which he founded on Institutions of self-government Protection for minorities Proportional representation

Question No #14: Aristotle’s “ideal state is always Plato’s second best:” Who said this?

Option A:G.H. Sabine

Option B:J.A. Dunning

Option C:W. Ebenstein

Option D:C.L Wayper

Answer : A

Explanation : G.H. Sabine said this Aristotle’s “ideal state is always Plato’s second-best”

Question No #15: Which one of the following is not the function of State, according to Kautilya?

Option A:Acquisition of that which is not under its control and possession

Option B:Preservation of what has been acquired

Option C:Accentuation of what has been preserved

Option D:Empire building only

Answer : D

Explanation : the Empire building only is not the function of the State, according to Kautilya.

Question No #16: Agganasutta’ is related with:

Option A:Hindu Philosophy

Option B:Buddhist Philosophy

Option C:Jain Philosophy

Option D:Vedanta Philosophy

Answer : B

Explanation : Agganda stands for Origin where as Sutta means dialogue. This deals with the Origin of life, Caste system and State.

Question No #17: The concept of ‘credible minimum deterrent’ relates to which of the following types of weapons?

Option A:Chemical

Option B:Biological

Option C:Nuclear

Option D:Space-based

Answer : C

Explanation : Credible Minimum Deterrence (CMD) is one of the central pillars of India’s nuclear policy. Nuclear policy makers after argue that India’s nuclear weapons programme, has always been guided by the understanding of minimum deterrence-avoiding largest in terms of cost, pace or posture. Credibility came upon demonstration of weapons capability. The credible minimum posture was considered apt to justify India’s nuclear weapons and missile capabilities after the 1998 tests. K. Subrahmanyam called it a doctrine adopted to suit India’s requirements and thinking on nuclear weapons (Subrahmanyam 1999). Bharat Karnad (2008) defines it as a self- explanatory, moderate, limited, reasonable and legitimate posture. The CMD doctrine highlights that India does not seek an open- ended nuclear arsenal and pillars other postures like the second-strike capability and no first use. CMD has now become the over- arching feature of the Indian Nuclear Doctrine, advertising three aspects of a nuclear weapons-empowered India: security with a thrust on deterrence, a responsible nuclear weapons state and commitment to global nuclear disarmament. The concept of “credible minimum dete- rrence” is used in conjunction with the con- cepts of “No First Use” and “Non Use” against nuclear weapon states.

Question No #18: Who gave the idea of the New Northern Concert of Power’ (NNCP) to analyse the relevance of non-aligned movement in post- cold war era?

Option A:M.S. Rajan

Option B:S.D. Muni

Option C:Muchkund Dubey

Option D:A.P. Rana

Answer : D

Explanation : A.P. Rana in his book the imperatives ofnon-alignment: A conceptual study of India’s Foregin policy Strategy in the Nehru Period given the concept of the New northern concert of power.

Question No #19: In which of the following subjects, Rajya Sabha has got more power than Lok sabha?

Option A:Ratification of President’s rule in a state

Option B:Creation of a new All India Service

Option C:Creation of Legislation Council in a state

Option D:Alteration in the boundary of a state

Answer : B

Explanation : Special powers of the Rajya Sabha-The Rajya Sabha has following special powers: (a) Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha may be a resolution passed by not less than 2/3rd of its members present and voting declare a subject of State List to be of National importance. By the force of such resolution, the Parliament gets the power to legislate on such subject. (b) The Rajya Sabha is empowered under Article 312 to pass a resolution supported by not less than 2/3 members present and voting to create a new All India Service in the national interest. Only such resolution enables Parliament to create a new All India Service. This power is given to the Rajya Sabha because members of this service are appointed in the administration of the States. (c) The resolution to remove the Vice- President of India can be initiated in the Rajya Sabha only.

Question No #20: Which article of the Indian Constitution is associated with judicial activism?

Option A:14

Option B:21

Option C:18

Option D:25

Answer : C

Explanation : According to Black’s Law Dictionary, judicial activism is a “philosophy of judicial decision making whereby judges allow their personal views about public policy, among other factors, to guide their decisions.” Judicial activism can also be defined as when a Court takes some legislative power away from legislators. Judicial Activism to define broadly, is the assumption of an active role on the part of the judiciary. For example, giving a judgement that gay marriage is a constitutional right in India would be “judicial activism.”Judicial activism means going beyond normal constraints of the judiciary. According to Justice J.S. Verma, judicial activism is an “active process of implementation of the rule of law, essential for the preservation of a functional democracy”. However, in a vibrantdemocratic system, it can also been seen as a phenomenon to curb executive tyranny and legislative misuse of power. In India, Article 21 of the Constitution associated with Judicial Activism.

Question No #21: Who among the following was strongly opposed to the idea of Panchayati Raj system in India?

Option A:B.R. Ambedkar

Option B:Jaya Prakash Narayan

Option C:Ram Manohar Lohia

Option D:Mahatma Gandhi

Answer : A

Explanation : Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was critical of the Panchayati Raj system. He believed that local self-government meant giving extra power to the already dominating local elites and upper castes. Thus such a system would lead do further exploitation of the lower castes and the downtrodden.

Question No #22: Which of the following statement is false about the Indian federalism?

Option A:it is a good example of ‘holding together” federation

Option B:it has a tendency of strong Central Government

Option C:it reflects the spirit of ‘coming together” federation

Option D:it has been referred to as ‘quasi federal’ system

Answer : C

Explanation : Federalism is a system of government in which powers have been divided between the centre and its constituent parts such as provinces or states. Unlike a unitary state, sovereignty is constitutionally split between at least two territorial levels so that units at each level have final authority and can act independently of the others in some area. The constituent units possess certain level of autonomy depending on type of federation. There are two types of federations: 1. Holding together federation: In this form of federation, the powers are shared among various social groups/constituent parts to accomodate the diversity present in the society. In this type of federation, the powers are somewhat tilted towards the central authority. India, Spain, Belgium etc. follow this form of federalism. 2. Coming together federation: In this form of federation, the independent states come together to form a bigger unit and sacrifice some of their powers to be enjoyed the central authority. The states here enjoy more autonomy as compared to the states in “holding together federation” system. Countries such as the USA, Switzerland, Australia follow this form of federalism.

Question No #23: Who has given originally the idea of ‘Hindu Rashtra’?

Option A:V.D. Savarkar

Option B:K.B. Hedgewar

Option C:M.S. Golwalkar

Option D:B.S. Moonje

Answer : A

Explanation : Savarkar was the first systematic exponent of the Hindu nationalism. He elaborately described his theory of Hindutva in his book ‘Hindutva’ published in 1924. By that time, he had abandoned his concept of Indian nationalism that he borrowed from Joseph Mazzini in favour of Hindu nationalism. In the process of developing his concept of Hindu nationalism, he rejected some of the arguments of territorial nationalism. He held that the existence of a mere territory did not make nation but nation was made by the people who constituted themselves as a political community, bound together by cultural affinities and traditions.

Question No #24: Who among the following was not a member of the ‘Syndicate’ group of the Congress party?

Option A:M.N. Nijalingappa

Option B:Morarji Desai

Option C:K. Kamaraj

Option D:Y.V. Chauvhan

Answer : D

Explanation : The AICC session held in Lalbagh, Bangalore, in 1969 was a historic session and paved the way for the split of the Congress Party. Mr. Nijalingappa was the leader of the Syndicate group consisting of Kamaraj Nadar, S.K. Patil, Atulia Ghosh and Morarji Desai. Mrs. Indira Gandhi was supported by a younger group called the ‘Young Turks’ in the party, consisting of Chandrashekhar, Krishna Kant, and Mohan Dharia. In the Bangalore session, the Syndicate group who were virtually ruling the country proposed Mr. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy as candidate for the post of President of India, owing to the vacancy caused by the demise of Dr. Zakir Hussain. Mrs. Indira Gandhi and her supporters opposed this presidential candidate, Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy, and left the AICC session in Bangalore and flew to Delhi and announced Mr. V.V. Giri, the then Vice-President of India as the Presidential candidate. This led to the expulsion of Mrs. Indira Gandhi from the Congress by Mr. Nijalingappa. Then, Mrs. Indira Gandhi called a parallel AICC.session in Mumbai in 1969 and expelled all the senior leaders who had expelled her. Thus, the Congress was split.

Question No #25: A formal organization, according to Chester Bernard, comes into existence when:

Option A:There are persons who are contribute action willing to

Option B:There are persons with different goals and purpose

Option C:There are prsons willing to communicate through informal channels only

Option D:Executive is unwilling to handle the economy of incentives within an organisation

Answer : A

Explanation : A formal organization for Barnard is a ‘system of consciously coordinated activities or forces of two or more persons’. This definition, and the analysis based on it, can be applied to all forms of organization: the state, the church, the factory, the family. An organization comes into being when ‘(i) there are persons able to communicate with each other (ii) who are willing to contribute action (iii) to accomplish a common purpose’. Willingness to contribute action in this context means the surrender of the control of personal conduct in order to achieve coordination. Clearly the commitment of particular persons to do this will vary from ‘maximum willingness through a neutral point to opposition or hatred. Indeed Barnard maintains that, in modern society, the commitment of the majority of possible contributors to any given organization will lie on the negative side. Equally important, the commitment of any individual will fluctuate, and thus the total willingness of all contributors to cooperate in any formal system is unstable a fact which is evident from the history of all such organizations. Willingness to cooperate is the result of the satisfactions or dissatisfactions obtained, and every organization depends upon the essentially subjective assessment of these made by its members.

Question No #26: The concept of ‘traditional’ authority involves:

Option A:Use of authority by virtue of their inherited status by persons

Option B:The exercise of power subject to rules and regulations

Option C:The use of power based on the basis of magical qualities by a person

Option D:The use of power/authority as per inherited status as well as extraordinary contribution to the history of advanced business organisation

Answer : A

Explanation : Traditional authority derives its legitimacy from the acceptance of it since hoary past. The persons exercising authority generally are called ‘Masters’ who enjoy personal authority by virtue of their inherited status. Their commands carry legitimacy because of the customs but they can also give orders based on their personal decision. Thus confirmity with customs and personal arbitrariness are two characteristics of traditional authority. The persons who obey the orders here are called ‘Followers’. They carry out the commands of the master out of sheer personal loyalty and a pious regard for his time-honoured status. In this patrimonial regime the persons who carry out the orders are personal retainers. household officials, relatives, favourites of the master. In a feudal society they are the loyal allies of the master. Thus, in the system of traditional authority, the officials carrying out the orders, look like the ‘household staff’ of the master and their spheres of activity change according to his whims and fancies. However, all these actions are legitimized in the name of traditions and customs.

Question No #27: Which of the following factors did not contribute to the evolution of the scientific management theory?

Option A:lack of effective standards of work

Option B:lack of clear understanding of worker-management responsibilities

Option C:rule-of-thumb based decisions by the management

Option D:proper job design and economic incentives to workers

Answer : D

Explanation : The fundamental concern of the scientific management school is to increase the efficiency of the worker through efficient job design and appropriate training. Fredrick Winslow Taylor, the father of the scientific management movement, developed many ideas to increase organisational efficiency. Taylor (1947) demonstrated that through proper handling of work, and worker selection and training, productivity could be increased. Henry Gantt, a colleague of Taylor’s, developed charts, now familiar as the Gantt Chart, for the planning and scheduling of production activities to increase efficiency. Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, also proponents of scientific management, developed time and motion studies to measure, record and improve efficiency. The scientific management school subscribes to the theory that efficiency could be attained by finding the right methods to get the job done, through specialisation, by planning and scheduling activities, by setting standard times to do the job, and by proper selection and training of workers and rewarding them through wage incentives for effective performance.

Question No #28: Which of the following statements about the ‘Consumer Protection Act 2019’ is NOT true?

Option A:It has widened the definition of consumer

Option B:It provides for E-filing of complaints

Option C:It establishes Central Consumer Protection Authority

Option D:It ignores mediation as an alternate disputes resolution mechanism

Answer : D

Explanation : The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 was notified on August 9th, 2019. However, it came into effect from July 20th, 2020. While retaining certain old provisions, the New Act has certain new provisions that tightens the existing rules to further safeguard consumer rights and create exhaustive consumer protection law. New provisions under Consumer Protection Act, 2019: ⚫Inclusion of E-commerce, Direct selling Establishment of Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA). ⚫Strict Norms for Misleading Advertise- ment. ⚫ Strict Norms for product liability. ⚫ Changes in the Pecuniary Jurisdiction. ⚫ Greater ease to dispute resolution Addition in the clause of “Unfair Trade Practice”. ⚫ Unfair Contract.. ⚫ Alternate Dispute Resolution through mediation.

Question No #29: Consumer Protection Bill 2019′ was passed by the Indian Parliament on:

Option A:13th July 2019

Option B:25th July 2019

Option C:6th August 2019

Option D:9th August 2019

Answer : C

Explanation : The Parliament passed the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 on 06.08.2019 to replace the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 (“1986) Act”). The President of India gave its assent to the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 (“2019 Act”) on 09.08.2019 and the same will come into force on the date it is notified by the Central Government. The 2019 Act has been enacted for the purpose of providing timely and effective administration and settlement of consumer disputes and related matters.

Question No #30: Hegemony’ refers to:

Option A:economic exploitation

Option B:structural inequality

Option C:the capacity of bourgeoisie to displace rival views and become, in effect, the common sense of the age

Option D:military domination

Answer : C

Explanation : The Marxist theory of ideology was perhaps developed furthest by Antonio Gramsci. Gramsci argued that the capitalist class system is upheld not simply by unequal economic and political power, but by what he termed the ‘hegemony’ of bourgeois ideas and theories. Hegemony means leadership or domination and, in the sense of ideological hegemony, it refers to the capacity of bourgeois ideas to displace rival views and become, in effect, the common sense of the age. Gramsci highlighted the degree to which ideology is embedded at every level in society: in its art and literature; in its education system and mass media; in everyday language; and in popular culture. This bourgeois hegemony, Gramsci insisted, could only be challenged at the political and intellectual level, which means through the establishment of a rival ‘proletarian hegemony’, based on socialist principles, values and theories.

Question No #31: Who among the following rejected ‘scientific determinism’ and advocated political and intellectual struggle?

Option A:Antonio Gramsci

Option B:Karl Marx

Option C:V.I. Lenin

Option D:Friedrich Engels

Answer : A

Explanation : An Italian Marxist and social theorist, Gramsci tried to redress the emphasis within orthodox Marxism on economic and material factors. He rejected any form of ‘scientific’ determinism by stressing, through the theory of hegemony (the dominance of bourgeois ideas and beliefs), the importance of the political and intellectual struggle. Gramsci highlighted the degree to which ideology is embedded at every level in society and called for the establishment of a rival ‘proletarian hegemony’, based on socialist principles and values. Gramsci’s major work is Prison Notebooks.

Question No #32: Which of the following indicates the nature of planning in India in Contemporary times?

Option A:Annual Planning

Option B:Centralised Planning

Option C:Perspective Planning

Option D:Five year Planning

Answer : C

Explanation : Perspective Planning indicates the nature of planning in India in Contemporary times.

Question No #33: Who among the following was/is the first chairman of NITI Aayog in India?

Option A:Amitabh Kant

Option B:Arvind Pangariya

Option C:Narendra Modi

Option D:Manmohan Singh

Answer : C

Explanation : About NITI Aayog: The Government, in January 2015, replaced Planning Commission with NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India). Aim: to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy- making process using a bottom-up approach. Role of NITI Aayog: The institution has to provide governments at the central and state levels with relevant strategic and technical advice across the spectrum of key elements of policy. This includes matters of national and international import on the economic front, dissemination of best practices from within the country as well as from other nations, the infusion of new policy ideas and specific issue-based support. The institution has to be able to respond to the changing and more integrated world that India is part of. Composition of NITI Aayog: Chairperson: Prime Minister of India. (Narendra Modi) as the Chairperson. Governing Council comprising the Chief Ministers of all the States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories. Regional Councils will be formed to address a specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These will be formed for a specified tenure. The Regional Councils will be convened by the Prime Minister and will comprise of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories in the region. These will be chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee. Experts, specialists and practitioners with relevant domain knowledge as special invitees nominated by the Prime Minister. The full-time organizational framework will comprise of, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson: Vice-Chairperson: To be appointed by the Prime Minister. Members: Full-time. Part-time members: Maximum of 2 from leading universities research organizations and other relevant institutions in an ex-officio capacity. Part time members will be on a rotational basis. Ex Officio members: Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister. Chief Executive Officer: To be appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.

Question No #34: Who among the following has presented the incremental model of public policy?

Option A:Henry Fayol

Option B:Charles E. Lindblom

Option C:Fred W. Riggs

Option D:David Easton

Answer : B

Explanation : Charles L. Lindblom in his article The Science of Muddling Through (1959) advocated the ‘incremental model’ of decision-making. It is diametrically opposite to Herbert Simon’s ‘rational comprehensive model’. Lindblom says that the actual decision-making in administration is different from the way it is generally described in theory. He recognises the practical problems in the rational comprehensive approach. He highlights the various limitations like money, time, information, politics, and others, which govern the actual decision-making process in the administration. Lindblom opined that the decision-makers always continue the existing programmes and policies with some additions. Thus, he argues that what actually occurs in administrative decisions is incrementalism’, that is, virtual continuation of the previous activities with few modifications. The incremental model is also known as ‘branch technique’ or ‘model of successive limited comparisons’ or ‘step- by-step decision-making’. Thus, Lindblom assumes that the past activities and experiences are used by the administrators to make future decisions. He applied two concepts to describe the actual decision-making process in administration- ‘marginal incrementalism’ and ‘partisan mutual adjustment’.

Question No #35: Which one of the following is not a theory or model of representation?

Option A:Trusteeship

Option B:Delegation

Option C:The Mandate

Option D:Consensus

Answer : D

Explanation : There are a number of models which are useful for looking at the nature of representing others. They are-trustee, delegate, politico, mandate and resemblance. The first two models-trustee and delegate-were developed prior to the advent of political parties so reflect the image of the independent representative (which the majority of our local government elected representatives are). Put simply, the trustee is a free agent who acts for others by exercising independent judgment, while the delegate acts for others by conveying their views on the basis of instructions. The politico tends to take a position midway between these two, being more flexible and sensitive than both, depending on the circumstances. The other two models of representation- mandate and resemblance-have been the focus of more recent debate over policy directions in a time of much economic and societal change worldwide in which there has been growing disillusionment with politics and discussion on the merits of different electoral systems. The mandate model emerged as one of the most influential theories of represen- tation associated with the development of political parties. Based on the premise that a party is elected to govern on a mandate containing policies and programmes promised during an election campaign, this model sees the party, rather than individual represen- tatives, as the agency of representation. The mandate is thus authorised by voters who see it as a way of supporting particular policies and keeping politicians accountable. Finally,the resemblance model is one where more recent debate on electoral change has rested. This model centres on the notion that those elected should be representative of the society over which they will ultimately govern, with the result that government is proportionally representative of all groups in society (particularly in relation to gender, ethnicity. geograpy and socio-economic position).

Question No #36: According to Greek system of classification of regimes, the degenerative form of rule by many is known as:

Option A:Tyranny

Option B:Aristocracy

Option C:Anarchic democracy (mob rule)

Option D:Oligarchy

Answer : C

Explanation : The traditional classifications of governments follow the course set by Aristotle. Aristotle, however, was not original. He borrowed from Plato as Plato had borrowed from Socrates. Aristotle based his classification on two principles: 1. the number of persons who exercise supreme power; and 2. the ends they serve. Applying the first principle, Aristotle said if the supreme power is vested in one single person it is a monarchy. If it is rule of the few, it is aristocracy, and if the supreme power is vested in many, it is a polity. Aristotle, then, proceeds to distinguish between what he calls the “normal” and the “perverted” forms of government basing his conclusions on the ends which the rulers serve. A normal State is that which always aims at the good of the community as a whole. It becomes a perverted form when the ruler or rulers become selfish and he or they exercise power vested in him or them for his or their own benefits rather than for the benefits of the community as a whole. Monarchy, aristocracy and polity are the normal forms of government. In their perverted form they become tyranny, oligarchy and democracy. Tyranny, Aristotle said, was the degenerated form of monarchy, oligarchy as the degenerated shape of aristocracy and democracy as the degenerated form of polity. Tyranny placed in the hands of the monarch arbitrary control over the lives and fortunes of the citizens. In oligarchy, the wealthy few ruled for selfish ends and used their powers and privileges for the oppression of the common people. Democracy meant mere mob rule, wherein the interests of none were safe and there was confusion and chaos all round.

Question No #37: Who among the following is often portrayed as the ‘father’ of cultural nationalism?

Option A:Guisseppe Mazzini

Option B:Charles Maurras

Option C:Frantz Fanon

Option D:Johann Gottfried Herder

Answer : D

Explanation : Johann Gottfried Herder: Father of Cultural Nationalism Johann Gottfried von Herder was a German poet, critic, theologian and philosopher. He is influenced by authors such as Goethe. The role he played in the development of the larger cultural movement known as romanticism. . He is a father of Cultural Nationalism.

Question No #38: Which one of the following is NOT a cause of Democratic Shift in the context of Democratisation?

Option A:Crisis of import-substitution

Option B:Loss of popularity and legitimacy by military regimes

Option C:Social change

Option D:Media

Answer : D

Explanation : Loss of popularity and legitimacy by military regimes; Promotion, and foreign influence and intervention

Question No #39: Who among the following reformulated Hans Morgenthau’s ‘six principles of political realism’ from a feminist perspective?

Option A:Judith Butler

Option B:J. Ann Tickner

Option C:Helen M. Kinsella

Option D:Betty Friden

Answer : B

Explanation : Broadly, classical realism indicates the evolution of the realist theory prior to the publication of Kenneth Waltz’s book the Theory of International Politics. In the recent years, generalizations about state behaviour since ancient times ranging from Thucydides till Waltz’s book is recognized as part of classical realism. However, realist theory was established as a means to study international politics through the publication of Hans Morgenthau’s book Politics among Nations. His six principles are widely accepted as the principles of the theory of international relations. These principles are: • Politics is governed by objective laws that have their roots in human nature.• Interest is defined in terms of power. • Interest defined as power is an objective category which is universally valid, but whose meaning can change. Universal moral principles cannot be applied to the actions of states in the abstract; the circumstances of time and place must be considered. The moral laws that govern the universe are distinct for the morals of any one nation. The difference between political realism. and other schools is real and profound. The political realist facilitates and maintains the autonomy of the political sphere by asking.’How does this policy affect the power of the nation?’ Political realism is based on a pluralistic concept of human nature. A man who is nothing but a ‘political man’ would be a beast, for he would be completely lacking in moral restraints. But, in order to develop an autonomous theory of political behaviours, a ‘political man’ must be abstracted from other aspects of human nature. Despite being so popular, these principles of Morgenthau’s realist theory are widely criticized. J. Ann Tickner, a feminist international relations theorist, has criticized these principles as nothing but a masculine interpretation of international politics. According to her, Morgenthau completely ignores the cooperative behaviour of states which is also equally significant along with the power politics. Besides, along with the ‘real politics’ there is also striving for justice, rule and peace in international politics, which Morgenthau tends to ignore. In addition to the feminist critic, Kenneth Waltz also criticized Morgenthau’s principles on the grounds that it does not take into account the impact of international structure on the state behaviour. Besides, Morgenthau’s theory also fails to distinguish between the domestic policy and politics at the international level. To bridge this gap, gave a structural explanation of international Waltz politics. This variant of realism is also known as neo-realism.

Question No #40: The combination of liberal democracy and the market had drawn a finishing line in the history of political and social development’. Who made this statement?

Option A:Samuel P. Huntington

Option B:Benjamin Barber

Option C:Francis Fukuyama

Option D:Alexander Wendt

Answer : C

Explanation : Francis Fukuyama’s humanity has reached “not just… the passing of a particular period of past-war history, but the end of history as such: that is, the end-point of mankind’s ideological evolution and the unification of the world.”

Question No #41: Which of the following is the executive- bureaucratic arm of the European Union?

Option A:The European Council

Option B:The European Commission

Option C:The Council

Option D:The European Parliament

Answer : B

Explanation : The European Commission is the executive- bureaucratic arm of the EU, responsible for generating new laws and policies, overseeing their implementation, managing the EU budget, representing the EU in international negotiations, and promoting the interests of the EU as a whole. Headquartered in Brussels, the Commission consists of a college of appointed commissioners, who function collectively much like a national government cabinet in a parliamentary system, and several thousand full-time European bureaucrats, each assigned to one of the Commission’s directorates-general (DGs), the functional equivalent of national government depart- ments. There is a DG for each major policy area in which the EU is active, and each DG is supported by services that provide policy advice, research support, and legal expertise. Confusingly, both the commissioners and the European bureaucrats are separately and collectively described as “the Commission.”

Question No #42: Which of the following is not a principle of jus ad bellum (just recourse to war)?

Option A:just cause

Option B:legitimate authority

Option C:proportionality

Option D:humanity

Answer : D

Explanation : T.H. Green gave to idealism a new lease of life. He rejected the mechanistic theory of the state on the ground that it had made the state as an artificial institution and ignored the various factors which had contributed to state building. He rejected the force theory of the origin of the state and was convinced that will not force was the basis of state. Green is an idealist but he can also be hailed as an individualist. He gave the individua! a far more effective protection against the undue exercise of the state’s power than anything with which utilitarianism could provide him. Green revitalized the principle of liberty and instead of giving it a negative gave it a positive social meaning.

Question No #43: Who among the following is NOT a key figure of ‘Conservatism’?

Option A:T.H. Green

Option B:Edmund Burke

Option C:Michael Oakshott

Option D:Friedrich Von Hayek

Answer : A

Explanation : The key figure of ‘Conservatism are mentioned below: Edmund Burke; Thomas Hobbes; Michael Oakshott; Friedrich Von Hayek; Alexis de Tocqueville; David Hume

Question No #44: In which one of the following countries, ‘consociationalism’ as a power-sharing mechanism is not practiced?

Option A:Netherlands

Option B:Germany

Option C:Switzerland

Option D:Belgium

Answer : A

Explanation : The Dutch political system was famously described by Lijphart as a form of consociational democracy. Consociationalism refers to the fragmented but surprisingly stable form of democracy that was traditionally found in countries such as the Netherlands, Belgium and Austria. It is fragmented, as numerous societal subgroups are represented in Parliament by a large number of political parties. The political institutions of consociationalism traditionally compel party elites to cooperate across party boundaries, and they have to be more sensitive and respectful towards their political opponents than is common in dualistic political systems. This basically lowers the levels of political antagonism in parliament, as most parties and politicians know that they are likely to be forced to cooperate with their opponents in the near future. The cooperation between elites ensures the stability of the democratic system but also leads to a spread of responsibilities and institutions, as the different parties to a coalition government carve up the ‘benefits’ of the office and divide the spoils among a large number of beneficiaries. In the past decades, this ‘pillarised’ system is in transformation and the old more or less corporatist style of politics is giving way. However, the corporatist style of governance remains a constant factor in the Dutch governance even though political rhetorics have become stronger.

Question No #45: In which year, Government of India decided to observe the birthday of Swami Vivekananda as the National Youth Day?

Option A:1984

Option B:1986

Option C:1985

Option D:1987

Answer : A

Explanation : National Youth Day is celebrated on 12 January being the birthday of SwamiVivekananda. In 1984 the Government of India declared this day as National Youth Day and since from 1985 the event is celebrated in India every year.It was a decision of Government of India taken in 1984 to celebrate the birthday of great Swami Vivekananda, i.e., 12 January, as National Youth Day every year. The Government of India quoted that ‘the philosophy of Swamiji and the ideals for which he lived and worked could be a great source of inspiration for the Indian Youth Day.’

Question No #46: The term “Sanskritisation” was coined by:

Option A:M.N. Srinivas

Option B:M.S. Golwalkar

Option C:S.P. Mukherjee

Option D:Andre Beteille

Answer : A

Explanation : The concept ‘Sanskritization’ was first introduced by Prof. M.N. Srinivas the famous Indian sociologist. He explained the concept, of sanskritization in his book “Religion and society among the coorgs of South India” to describe the cultural mobility in the traditional caste structure of Indian society. In his study of the coorgs of Mysore, he came to know that the lower castes were trying to raise their status in their caste hierarchy by adopting some cultural ideals of the Brahmins. As a result they left some of their ideals which are od considered to be impure by the Brahmins. To explain this process of mobility, Srinivas used the term ‘Brahminization’. Later on he called it ‘Sanskritization’ in a broad sense.Defining Sanskritization Srinivas writes, “Sanskritization is a process by which a lower caste or tribe or any other group changes its customs, rituals, ideology and way of life in the direction of a higher or more often twice- born caste.”

Question No #47: Vandana Shiva is known as:

Option A:Post Modernist

Option B:Marxist

Option C:Eco-feminist

Option D:Conservatist

Answer : C

Explanation : Vandana Shiva is known as Eco-feminist. Vandana Shiva plays a major role in the global Eco-feminist movement. According to her. 2004 article Empowering Women, Shiva suggests that a more sustainable and productive approach to agriculture can be achieved through reinstating the system of farming in India that is more centered on engaging women. She advocates against the prevalent “patriarchal logic of exclusion,” claiming that a woman-focused system would change the current system in an extremely positive manner. She believes that ecological destruction and industrial catastrophes threaten daily life, and the maintenance of these problems have become the responsibility of women.

Question No #48: Which of the following is not correct?

Option A:Nation is psychological concept

Option B:State is legal concept

Option C:Nationalism is attribute of Nation

Option D:Nation and state are co-terminus

Answer : D

Explanation : Although mostly used interchangeably, technically, state and nation are different, state is a government, or a territory governed by a single government. A nation is a group of people who have a shared cultural identity (can be shared ethnicity, language and history). A state can be composed of many “nations”…. and a nation can also be separated into many states. For example, the Arab nation (the Arabs) are separated by different states: Jordan, UAE, Kuwait, etc.. Different states but they are all under one Arab Nation! And in contrast, there is the one state of China comprised of the Han nation and the non-Han minority nations of Hmongs, Miao, Hui, Tibetans, Mongolians, etc. Israel is also a great example: state of Israel with the nation of the Jews and the Arab Palestinian nation living under state of Israel. Ukraine has the Ukrainian nation, Russian nation, and the minority Jews and Polish nations within Ukraine.

Question No #49: Who had differentiated between natural and conventional inequality?

Option A:Hobbes

Option B:Rousseau

Option C:Locke

Option D:Bentham

Answer : B

Explanation : J.J. Rousseau had differentiated between natural and conventional inequality. He was an advocate of approximate social equality but not total equality. He was willing to permit two sorts of inequality. The first was the natural inequality between the young and old, the weak and strong, the wise and stupid; the second was the inequality that resulted from rewarding those who rendered special service to the community. Natural inequalities and those who made distinguished contributions to society were the only types of inequalities that he permitted. He maintained that existing social inequality did not belong to these types.

Question No #50: In which year UNESCO was set up?

Option A:1945 and 1946

Option B:1950

Option C:1947

Option D:1948

Answer : A

Explanation : UNESCO, acronym for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization, specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) that was outlined in a constitution signed November 16, 1945. The constitution, which entered into force in 1946, called for the promotion of international collaboration in education, science, and culture. The agency’s permanent headquarters are in Paris, France.UNESCO’s initial emphasis was on rebuilding schools, libraries, and museums that had been destroyed in Europe during World War II. Since then its activities have been mainly facilitative, aimed at assisting, supporting, and complementing the national efforts of member states to eliminate illiteracy and to extend free education. UNESCO also seeks to encourage the free exchange of ideas and knowledge by organizing conferences and providing clearinghouse and exchange services.

Question No #51: The book “Political Order in Changing Societies” is written by:

Option A:Lucian Pye

Option B:G.A. Almond

Option C:Ernest Barker

Option D:S.P. Huntington

Answer : D

Explanation : Political Order in Changing Societies is a 1968 book by Samuel P. Huntington dealing with changes in political systems and political institutions. Huntington rejected the prevalent more optimistic modernization theories, arguing that order and stability themselves are crucial objectives in developing countries. As stated by Francis Fukuyama, Huntington argued that political decay was “at least as likely as political development”, and that neither “economic nor social development” could proceed without political order, the actual experience of newly independent countries being “one of increasing social and political disorder”.

Question No #52: Who is the author of the book “Escape from Freedom”?

Option A:Herbert Marcuse

Option B:Erich Fromm

Option C:Jurgen Habermas

Option D:Thomas Friedman

Answer : B

Explanation : “Escape from Freedom” is Erich Fromm’s psychological history of the social conditions that developed in Europe between the Middle Ages and the mid-20th century which culminated in the rise of the Nazi Party to power in Germany under Adolf Hitler. Fromm is writing in 1941, after Hitler has come to power and begun his aggressive campaign to conquer Europe, but before the United States has entered what is to become the Second World War. The underlying question of Fromm’s work is how the German people allowed Hitler’s totalitarian regime to gain power seemingly willingly and with their enthusiastic support. A secondary question Fromm asks is whether or not democracy such as that found outside of Germany makes a people safe from similar developments. He identifies a basic psychological need which has led to the support for the Nazis in Germany and concludes by warning that this need is not necessarily filled in a democracy.

Question No #53: Which one of the following is incorrect statement?

Option A:Globalisation means internationalization of economy

Option B:Globalisation gives emphasis on market economy

Option C:Globalisation gives rise to international institutions to supervise economy

Option D:Globalisation tends to perpetuate parochial culture

Answer : D

Explanation : Globalization is now widely discussed, but the debates often focus on economic issues. A lucid and engaging writer, John Tomlinson goes far beyond traditional discussions to analyze the wide-ranging cultural, social, and moral aspects of globalization. Tomlinson begins this ambitious project by studying the relationship between globalization and contemporary culture, explaining the importance of time and space concerns, cultural imperialism, “deterritorialization,” the impact of the media and communication technologies, and the possible growth of more cosmopolitan culture. We come to understand how someone may face unemployment as a result of downsizing decisions made at a company’s head office on another continent, or how the food we find in our grocery stores is radically different today from twenty years ago. He discusses the uneven nature of the experience of global modernity in relation to first and third world countries, and concludes that a genuinely cosmopolitan culture is unlikely to emerge unless we respect cultural differences and share a common sense of commitment about the world.

Question No #54: Who had condemned utilitarianism in his Theory of justice?

Option A:Plato

Option B:Rawls

Option C:Hayek

Option D:Milton

Answer : B

Explanation : Rawls described his theory of justice called “Justice as Fairness” in his book A Theory of Justice. Rawls agrees with Nozick that justice is quite separate from morality and he too rejects utilitarian forms of justice. He first suggests a new way to learn about principles of justice the original position. The original position asks us, to imagine that a group of people will get to decide the principles of justice. These people don’t know who they are (what he calls a ‘veil of ignorance’), they are self-interested, and they know everything science has to offer. He argues that in a veil of ignorance they couldn’t be as biased towards their profession, race, gender, age, or social status because they wouldn’t know which categories they belong to. As far as self-interest is concerned, Rawls argues that they will want principles of justice that will “fairly distribute” certain goods that everyone will value-what Rawls calls “primary social goods”. Rawls argues that the people in the original position will discuss which principles of justice are best before voting on them, and the best principles worth having will reach a “reflective equilibrium”-the most intuitive principles will be favoured and incompatible less intuitive principles will have to be rejected in order to maintain coherence. He argues that two intuitive principles of justice in particular will reach reflective equilibrium: Each person is to have an equal right to the most extensive total system of equal basic liberties compatible with a similar system of liberty for all. Social and economic inequalities are to satisfy two conditions: first, they are to be attached to positions and offices open to all under conditions of fair equality of opportunity; and second, they are to be the greatest expected benefit of the least advantaged members of society.

Question No #55: Who had formed the “Society for right to die with dignity”?

Option A:Jai Prakash Narayan

Option B:Minoo Masani

Option C:Krishna Ayyar

Option D:Medha Patkar

Answer : B

Explanation : Minoo Masani, an astute parliamentarian and liberal thinker, founded ‘The Society for the Right to Die with Dignity’ in May 1981, Mumbai, gracefully articulating the demand for voluntary euthanasia at a time when the topic was not much in vogue. In the following excerpt (from Freedom First, November 20, 1995), Masani eloquently presents his case for the right to choose between life and death.

Question No #56: Who is not a supporter of Libertarianism?

Option A:Robert Nozick

Option B:Milton Friedman

Option C:Robert Dahl

Option D:F.A. Hayek

Answer : C

Explanation : Libertarian political thought is characterized by the strict priority given to liberty (understood in negative terms) over other values, such as authority, tradition and equality. Libertarians thus seek to maximize the realm of individual freedom and minimize the scope of public authority, typically seeing the state as the principal threat to liberty. In the 1970s, Robert Nozick was responsible for popularizing this usage of the term in academic and philosophical circles outside the United States, especially with the publication of ‘Anarchy, State and Utopia- 1974′, a response to social liberal John Rawls’ ‘A Theory of Justice-1971’. In this book, Nozick proposed a ‘minimal state’ on the grounds that it was an inevitable phenomenon which could arise without violating individual rights.

Question No #57: Who defined leadership as “the ability of a manager to induce subordinates to work with zeal and confidence”?

Option A:Koontz and O’Donnell

Option B:Chester Bernard

Option C:M.P. Follet

Option D:Peter Drucker

Answer : A

Explanation : The definitions given by some famous authors and management experts are given below: Koontz and O’Donnel: Leadership is the ability of a manager to induce subordinates to work with confidence and zeal. Peter Drucker: Leadership is not making friends and influencing people, i.e., salesmanship it is the lifting of man’s visions to higher rights, the raising of man’s personality beyond its normals limitations. Chester Bernard: Leadership is the ability of a superior to influence the behaviour of a subordinate or group and persuade them to follow a particular course of action.

Question No #58: When did International Labour Organization become a specialized agency of the United Nations Organization?

Option A:1945

Option B:1946

Option C:1947

Option D:1948

Answer : B

Explanation : International Labour Organization (ILO), specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world. Established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations, the ILO became the first affiliated specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946. In recognition of its activities, the ILO was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969. The functions of the ILO include the development and promotion of standards for national legislation to protect and improve working conditions and standards of living. The ILO also provides technical assistance in social policy and administration and in workforce training; fosters cooperative organizations and rural industries; compiles labour statistics and conducts research on the social problems of international competition, unemployment and underemployment, labour and industrial relations, and technological change (including automation); and helps to protect the rights of international migrants and organized labour.

Question No #59: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides power to the President to promulgate ordinances?

Option A:Article 123

Option B:Article 222

Option C:Article 221

Option D:Article 223

Answer : A

Explanation : Article 123 deals with the power of the President to promulgate ordinances to enact new legislations/amend existing legislations. This power is executed in 2 scenarios- 1. If either one of houses of Parliament is not in session. 2. If both of the houses of Parliament are not in session. The ordinances so promulgated has to be passed by both houses within 6 weeks of reassembly of the Parliament. i.e., maximum duration of an ordinance is 6 months and 6 weeks. Remember, even ordinance making power can’t bypass judicial scrutiny. If found unconstitutional, it can well be scrapped.

Question No #60: Who authored the book, Silent Spring?

Option A:Frank Thone

Option B:Raymond L. Bryant

Option C:Rachel Carson

Option D:Roy Rappaport

Answer : C

Explanation : Silent spring is an environmental science book by Rachel Carson. The book was published on September 27, 1962 documenting the adverse environmental effects caused by the indiscriminate use of pesticides. Carson accused the chemical industry of spreading disinformation, and public officials of accepting the industry’s marketing claims unquestioningly. Starting in the late 1950s, prior to the book’s publication, Carson had focused her attention on environmental conservation, especially environmental problems that she believed were caused by synthetic pesticides. The result of her research was silent spring, which brought environmental concerns to the American public. The book was met with fierce opposition by chemical companies, but, owing to public opinion, it brought about numerous changes. It spurred a reversal in the united states’ national pesticide policy, led to a nationwide ban on DDT for agricultural uses, and helped to inspire an environmental movement that led to the creation of U.S. Environmental protection Agency. Over there decades later, in 1996, a follow-up book, Beyond silent spring, co-written by H.F. Van Emden and David Peakall, was published. In 2006, silent spring was named one of the 25 greatest science books of all time by the editors of Discover Magazine.

Question No #61: Pandita Ramabai was accorded the title ‘Pandita’ for:

Option A:social reforms

Option B:emancipation of women

Option C:eradication of caste system

Option D:being a Sanskrit scholar

Answer : D

Explanation : Pandita Ramabai Sarasvati was an Indian social reformer, a pioneer in the education and emancipation of women in India. She was the first women to be accorded the titles of Pandita as a Sanskrit scholar and Sarasvati after being examined by the faculty of the university of Calcutta. She was one of the ten women delegates of the congress session of 1889 at Bombay. In the late 1890s, she founded Mukti Mission at Kedgaon village, 40 miles east of the city of Pune. The mission was later named Pandita Ramabai Mukti Mission. She is the ideal for women’s and basically widow’s.

Question No #62: Karl Marx, the founder of Marxism, formally was the citizen of which one of the following countries?

Option A:Germany

Option B:France

Option C:UK

Option D:None of the above

Answer : D

Explanation : Karl Marx (5 May 1818 14 March 1883) was a German philosopher, economist, historian, sociologist, political theorist, journalist and socialist revolutionary. Born in Trier, Germany, Marx studied law and philosophy at university. He married Jenny von Westphalen in 1843. Due to his political publications, Marx became stateless and lived in exile with his wife and children in London for decades, where he continued to develop his thought in collaboration with German thinker Friedrich Engels and publish his writings, researching in the reading room of the British Museum. His best-known titles are the 1848 pamphlet, The Communist Manifesto, and the three-volume Das Capital. His political and philosophical thought had enormous influence on subsequent intellectual,economic and political history, and his name has been used as an adjective, a noun and a school of social theory.

Question No #63: How many prakrities of Mandal Theory of State are enumerated by Kautilya?

Option A:60

Option B:68

Option C:70

Option D:72

Answer : D

Explanation : Kautilya in Arthashastra has detailed the notion of Raja Mandala or circle of states and Shadguna or six-fold diplomatic policy, which can amazingly encompass every aspect of modern foreign policy. The Rajmandala theory consists of four principal types of states viz. Vijigishu, Ari, Madhyama and Udasina. Each of them has an ally and ally’s ally thus making 12 kings and 60 types of combinations called material constituents (for example, enemy’s enemy, mitra’s enemy, enemy’s mitra, mitra’s mitra and so on). This together combines into the total 72 elements of Raja Mandala. This scheme is based on assumption that two neighbouring states which share their borders are hostile to each other; and the enemy of hostile neighbour is a naturally ally. The vijigishu is located at the centre of this circle.

Question No #64: Who is the writer of the book, A Great and Terrible World?

Option A:Antonio Gramsci

Option B:Hannah Arendt

Option C:Hegel

Option D:John Rawls

Answer : A

Explanation : Antonio Gramsci is the writer of the book A Great and Terrible World. A collection of letters is also essentially a biography – here of a man recognized as one of the twentieth century’s leading thinkers. By translating and presenting for the first time many letters previously overlooked by other volumes, this collection greatly expands what the English- speaking world knows of him, both politically and personally. These extracts from his pre- prison correspondence with his wife and her sister, international communist leaders, and fellow Italian revolutionaries-show his most important ideas at their beginnings, and give a well rounded picture of Gramsci’s political, intellectual, and emotional development. Antonio Gramsci (1891-1937) was a founding member of the Italian Communist Party, and among the twentieth century’s most influential theorists.

Question No #65: Agganna Sutta is the:

Option A:27th Sutta of the Digha Nikaya

Option B:27th Sutta of the Majjhima Nikaya

Option C:26th Sutta of Samyutta Nikaya

Option D:27th Sutta of Anguttara Nikaya

Answer : A

Explanation : Agganna Sutta is the 27th Sutta of the Digha Nikaya collection. The sutta describes a discourse imparted by the Buddha to two brahmins, Bharadvaja and Vasettha, who left their family and caste to become monks. The two brahmins are insulted and maligned by their own caste for their intention to become members of the Sangha. The Buddha explains that caste and lineage cannot be compared to the achievement of morality practice and the Dhamma, as anyone from the four castes can become a monk and reach the state of Arahant. Then, he explains about the beginning of the Earth and the birth of social order and its structure, including the castes. The Buddha the message of universality in the and how the Dhamma is the best of all things.

Question No #66: Making someone better without making others worse’ is associated with which one of the following?

Option A:Pareto’s principle of Optimality

Option B:Nozick’s principle of Entitlement

Option C:Foucault’s principle of Power

Option D:Rawls’s principle of Distributive Justice

Answer : A

Explanation : Multi-criteria optimization, or multiobjective optimization is a way of solving a mathematical or economic problem where many different parameters need to be changed to get one of the best possible solutions to the problem. The result of this is called Pareto efficiency, named after Vilfredo Pareto, who first used it in his studies. In economics, the idea of Pareto efficiency is very simple: If there is no way of improving the situation of one person, without making that of another person worse, the solution found is Pareto-efficient. If we look at what the economy produces, we might say it is on its Pareto Frontier or Production Possibility Frontier, meaning that it is making (or “producing”) all it can with the things it has (such as machines, labour, land and ideas all called resources or – factors of production). If this is the case, making more of one thing would mean making less of another; the resources are already being used to full capacity, so making more of one thing will take resources away from making another.

Question No #67: Who said that art, religion and philosophy differ only in form, their purpose is the same?

Option A:Georg Lukacs

Option B:Sartre

Option C:Hegel

Option D:Erik Olin Wright

Answer : C

Explanation : The philosophy of Hegel is the most complete of the history of philosophy. As a true architect, Hegel has built a cathedral, a complete system, totalling all knowledge of his time (art, religion, philosophy, history, …). Even if Hegel appears as pretentious (Kierkegaard), funky for others (Husserl, Sartre), it remains that the work of Hegel is one of the most complex (it is often recommended reading The Phenomenology of Mind from five years of philosophy at the university …) We bet, however, that we can somewhat explain his thinking in retaining its leading thoughts and quotes: “In the hierarchy of the means used to express the absolute, religion and culture in the wake of reason hold the highest degree, well above that of art” “Art, religion and philosophy differ only in form, their purpose is the same” “In saying that beauty is an idea, we want to say is that beauty and truth are one and the same thing” “There no philosophical opinions”.

Question No #68: Which one among the following is NOT related to Neo-Marxism?

Option A:Jurgen Habermas

Option B:Erich Fromm

Option C:Herbert Marcuse

Option D:Rosa Luxemburg

Answer : D

Explanation : Rosa Luxemburg, Polish-born German revolutionary and agitator who played a key role in the founding of the Polish Social Democratic Party and the Spartacus League, which grew into the Communist Party of Germany. As a political theoretician, Luxemburg developed a humanitarian theory of Marxism, stressing democracy and revolutionary mass action to achieve international socialism. Due to her pointed criticism of both the Leninist and the more moderate social democratic schools of socialism, Luxemburg has had a somewhat ambivalent reception among scholars and theorists of the political left. Nonetheless, Luxemburg and Liebknecht were extensively idolized as communist martyrs by the East German communist regime. The German Federal Office for the Protection of the Constitution notes that idolization of Luxemburg and Liebknecht is an important tradition of German far-left extremism.

Question No #69: Feminists argue that women’s values are based primarily on

Option A:Religious laws

Option B:Prescribed social roles

Option C:Biology and prescribed social roles

Option D:Biology

Answer : B

Explanation : Feminists argue that women’s values are based primarily on prescribed social roles. Feminism is characterized primarily by its political stance the attempt to advance the social role of women. Feminists have highlighted what they see as a political relationship between the sexes, the supremacy of men and the subjection of women in most, if not all, societies. The ‘first wave’ of feminism was closely associated with the women’s suffrage movement, which emerged in the 1840s and 1850s. The ‘second wave’ of feminism arose during the 1960s and expressed, in addition to the established concern with equal rights, the more radical and sometimes revolutionary demands of the growing women’s liberation movement. The central concept in the feminist theory of sexual politics is patriarchy, a term that draws attention to the totality of oppression and exploitation to which women are subject.

Question No #70: Dialectic method was used for the first time in the writing of which one of the following thinkers?

Option A:Socrates

Option B:Plato

Option C:Marx

Option D:Hegel

Answer : B

Explanation : Socrates (470-399BC) engaged his learners by asking questions (now known as the Socratic or dialectic method). He often insisted that he really knew nothing, but his questioning skills allowed others to learn by self-generated understanding.Plato (428-348 BC), who was a student of Socrates and the teacher of Aristotle, wrote down the Dialogues, which have inspired thinkers for more than two thousand years. Plato called this process the dialectic, and considered it the pinnacle of learning. One of the significant features of the dialogical (dialectic) method is that it emphasizes collective, as against solitary activity. This is a question and answer form of arguing with an “expert” on one side and a “searcher” on the other. In the dialogues, the questioning of the expert by the searcher often exposes gaps in the reasoning. It is through this back and forth argument amongst friends (or adversaries) that understanding grows and becomes revealed to the learners. Such philosophical pursuit alongside and within a full education allows humans to transcend their desires and sense in order to attain true knowledge.

Question No #71: The immigrating ethnic cultural groups which never get opportunity to become citizens under multiculturalism are called

Option A:Metics

Option B:National minorities

Option C:Immigrant groups

Option D:Isolationist ethno-religious groups

Answer : A

Explanation : A Metic is a term that refers primarily to a non-citizen person permanently dwelling in Athens between 500 and 400 BC, a time in which foreigners were welcomed to settle in the city because of their positive impact on trade, culture and education. Most metics were either immigrants from other parts of Greece, freed slaves, or children of either of the two categories of people. Metics were found in most states except Sparta. Because citizenship in ancient Athens was not based on where a person was born, but rather as a benefit of inheritance, many metic families had lived in Athens for generations and were likely physically indistinguishable from other local citizens. Based on the record of many tombstones, Metics retained the citizenship of their city of origin and preferred to list their home city on their tombs.

Question No #72: Who said that political work is the life blood of all economic work?

Option A:John Rawls

Option B:Mao Zedong

Option C:Karl Marx

Option D:Frantz Fanon

Answer : B

Explanation : Mao Zedong-Political work is the life-blood of all economic work. This is particularly true at a time when the social and economic system is undergoing fundamental change.

Question No #73: Who stated that placing restrictions on freedom of expressions of human beings is like robbing off the present and the future races?

Option A:J.S. Mill

Option B:John Locke

Option C:Isaiah Berlin

Option D:F.A. Hayek

Answer : A

Explanation : J.S. Mill stated that placing restrictions on freedom of expressions of human beings is like robbing off the present and the future races. He regarded liberty of conscience, liberty to express and publish one’s opinions, liberty to live as one pleased and freedom of association as essential for a meaningful life and for the pursuit of one’s own good. His defence of freedom of thought and expression was one of the most powerful and eloquent expositions in the western intellectual tradition. “If all mankind minus one were of one opinion, mankind would be no more justified in silencing that one person than he if he had the power, would be justified in silencing mankind.” Mill’s defence of freedom of thought and expression was linked to the persecution of error. Even if an opinion was incorrect, it ought to be articulated, for only through active interaction and dialogue could opinions evolve; otherwise they would lose their vitality and become dead dogmas. Ideas were to be subjected to critical scrutiny from other points of view for arriving at the truth.

Question No #74: Black Skin, White Masks is written by

Option A:Gramsci

Option B:Hannah Arendt

Option C:Frantz Fanon

Option D:Wollstonecraft

Answer : C

Explanation : Frantz Fanon (July 20, 1925-December 6, 1961) was a psychiatrist, intellectual, and revolutionary born in the French colony of Martinique. Fanon wrote about the effects of colonialism and oppression in books such as “Black Skin, White Masks” and “Wretched of the Earth.” His writings, as well as his support of the Algerian War of Independence, have influenced anti-colonial movements across the world, including in South Africa, Palestine, and the United States.

Question No #75: “The English think they are free. They are free only during the election of members of parliament”. Who said this?

Option A:J.S. Mill

Option B:T.H. Green

Option C:Locke

Option D:Rousseau

Answer : D

Explanation : “The people of England regards itself as free; but it is grossly mistaken; it is free only during the election of members of parliament. As soon as they are elected, slavery overtakes it, and it is nothing.”

Question No #76: The Idea of Justice as fairness in Rawlsian theory flows from

Option A:Individual

Option B:Society

Option C:State

Option D:Nation

Answer : A

Explanation : The idea of justice as fairness flows from individual. The conception of justice as fairness was given by John Rawls in his book A Theory Of Justice 1971. He describes certain thor basic minimum principles on which any conception of justice has to be based. Such principles of justice have to arrived at from an original position under a veil of ignorance.

Question No #77: Who wrote the book, Multicultural Citizenship: A Liberal Theory of Minority Rights (1995)?

Option A:T.H. Marshal

Option B:B.S. Turner

Option C:Will Kymlica

Option D:Bheekhu Parekh

Answer : C

Explanation : Multicultural Citizenship: A Liberal Theory of Minority Rights authored by Will Kymlicka. The increasingly multicultural fabric of modern societies has given rise to many new issues and conflicts, as ethnic and national minorities demand recognition and support for their cultural identity. This book presents a new conception of the rights and status of minority cultures. It argues that certain sorts of rights for minority cultures are consistent with liberal democratic principles, and that standard liberal objections to recognizing such rights on the grounds of individual freedom,social justice, and national unity can be answered. However, no single formula can be applied to all groups, and the needs and aspirations of immigrants are very different from those of indigenous peoples and national minorities. The book analyses some of the issues, which, though central to an understanding of multicultural politics (such as language rights, group representation, land rights, federalism, and secession), have been surprisingly neglected in contemporary liberal theory.

Question No #78: Which one of the following is incorrect with regard to post modernism?

Option A:Primacy of consumption instead of knowledge

Option B:of totality

Option C:Commonality to greatness

Option D:Historical tendency

Answer : D

Explanation : Postmodernism is an intellectual stance or a mode of discourse that rejects the possibility of reliable knowledge, denies the existence of a universal, stable reality, and frames aesthetics and beauty as arbitrary and subjective. It can be described as a reaction against scientific attempts to explain reality with objective certainty, recognizing that reality is constructed as the mind tries to understand its own personal circumstances. It is characterized by an attitude of skepticism, irony, or rejection toward the grand narratives and ideologies of modernism, often denying or challenging the validity of scientific inquiry, or declaiming the arbitrariness of the aesthetics of artistic works or other artifacts of cultural production, or questioning various assumptions of Enlightenment rationality. Initially, postmodernism was a mode of discourse on literature and literary criticism, commenting on the nature of literary text, meaning, author and reader, writing and reading. Postmodernism developed in the mid- to late-twentieth century across philosophy, the arts, architecture, and criticism as a departure or rejection of modernism.

Question No #79: Who stated that the life of man is solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short?

Option A:Machiavelli

Option B:Hobbes

Option C:Locke

Option D:Rousseau

Answer : B

Explanation : For Hobbes, the state of nature is characterized by the “war of every man against every man,” a constant and violent condition of competition in which each individual has a natural right to everything, regardless of the interests of others. Existence in the state of nature is, as Hobbes famously states, “solitary, poor, nasty, brutish, and short.” The only laws that exist in the state of nature (the laws of nature) are not covenants forged between people but principles based on self- preservation. What Hobbes calls the first law of nature, for instance, is that every man ought to endeavour peace, as far as he has hope of obtaining it; and when he cannot obtain it, that he may seek and use all helps and advantages of war. In the absence of a higher authority to adjudicate disputes, everyone fears and mistrusts everyone else, and there can be no justice, commerce, or culture. That unsustainable condition comes to an end when individuals agree to relinquish their natural rights to everything and to transfer their self- sovereignty to a higher civil authority, Leviathan. For Hobbes, the authority of the sovereign is absolute, in the sense that no authority is above the sovereign and that its will is law. That, however, does not mean that the power of the sovereign is all- encompassing: subjects remain free to act as they please in cases in which the sovereign is silent (in other words, when the law does not address the action concerned). The social contract allows individuals to leave the state of nature and enter civil society, but the former remains a threat and returns as soon as governmental power collapses. Because the power of Leviathan is uncontested, however, its collapse is very unlikely and occurs only when it is no longer able to protect its subjects.

Question No #80: Stasiology is the study of:

Option A:elections

Option B:statistics

Option C:political parties

Option D:movements

Answer : C

Explanation : The term ‘stasiology’ as it applies to the area of general science can be defined as ‘the study of political parties’. Borrowing from French stasiologie, coined in 1951 by French jurist, sociologist and politician Maurice Duverger (1917-2014) from stase (“stasis”) + ology (indicating the study of a particular subject), because of the way the opposition of political parties tends to prevent governments from making dramatic changes.

Question No #81: “New Democracy’ as hegemony of the workers, peasants and other marzinalized sections of the society is associated with which one of the following?

Option A:Subaltern School

Option B:Marxist School

Option C:Post-Behavioural School

Option D:Post-Modernist School

Answer : A

Explanation : New Democracy’ as hegemony of the workers, peasants and other marginalized sections of the society is associated with Subaltern School. The term “subaltern” in this context is an allusion to the work of Italian Marxist Antonio Gramsci (1891-1937). The term’s semantic range has evolved from its first usage by Ranjit Guha, following Gramsci, to refer solely to peasants who had not been integrated into the capitalist system. It now refers to any person or group of inferior rank or station, whether because of race, class, gender sexual orientation, ethnicity or religion.

Question No #82: “When diplomacy ends, war begins.” Who said this?

Option A:Adolf Hitler

Option B:Napolean Bonaparte

Option C:Hans Morgenthau

Option D:Mao Tse Tung

Answer : A

Explanation : Adolf Hitler said that “when diplomacy ends, war begins”. In international politics nations do not go to war without pursuing any diplomatic channels. So, first it will be negotiation through diplomatic means. They will try the best to solve the disputes and avoid conflict at all means. But if that fails, then the nations will have no other options than fighting it out in the battle. May be this could be the reason he meant. Of course, Hitler is not lunatic as the media projects. He went through the diplomatic channels, it worked with chamberlain and others. But after that he has to take the forced means to get back the territories Germany lost after the Treaty of Versailles. And he had the plan to get the most of Eastern Europe and probably Russia to make Germany Great again.

Question No #83: The Anti-Satellite Missile Test conducted by India on 27th March 2019 is known as

Option A:Mission Antarriksh

Option B:Mission Bharat

Option C:Mission Shakti

Option D:Mission A-SAT

Answer : C

Explanation : On March 27, 2019 India conducted Mission Shakti, an anti-satellite missile test, from the Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Island launch complex. This was a technological mission carried out by DRDO. The satellite used in the mission was one of India’s existing satellites operating in lower orbit. The test was fully successful and achieved all parameters as per plans. The test required an extremely high degree of precision and technical capability. The significance of the test is that India has tested and successfully demonstrated its capability to interdict and intercept a satellite in outer space based on complete indigenous technology. With this test, India joins an exclusive group of space faring nations consisting of USA, Russia and China.

Question No #84: Who equated revolution with ‘fever’?

Option A:Theda Skocpol

Option B:Barrington Moore

Option C:Crane Brinton

Option D:Francine R. Frankel

Answer : C

Explanation : In his book, Anatomy of Revolution, Crane Brinton compares revolution to a fever. In this respect, a revolution is not a positive phenomena, it is something to be avoided and cured, when and if, it occurs. This is due to the fact that “nobody wants to have a fever”. However, fever, and Revolution, “in itself is a good thing…. for the organism that survives it. The revolution destroys wicked people and harmful and useless institutions”. Brinton breaks down the revolution into three entities: the symptoms, the fever itself, which is the manipulation of revolution, and the break of the fever, when things more or less return to normal. Symptoms can take several different forms: economic problems, inefficiency of the government, the rise of the self-proclaimed revolutionaries, and the overthrow of the old regime, followed by the breakup of the revolutionaries’ coalition. In the early stages of the revolution itself, Brinton sees the moderates seize power, but then the extremists take that power away from them. Then the fever breaks, Thermidor occurs and the revolution is over. In Brinton’s view there is nothing much that can be done about revolutionaries, the fever has to burn out on its own. In his book, Crane Brinton uses the American Revolution as one of his examples. One assumes that he vies the American Revolution as a real Revolution, though the author states that it does not fit perfectly conceptual schemes.

Question No #85: The demand for ‘Harit Pradesh’ is related to which one of the following regions in India?

Option A:Western Uttar Pradesh

Option B:Bundelkhand

Option C:Uttaranchal

Option D:Vidharbha

Answer : A

Explanation : Harit Pradesh (also known as Pashchim Pradesh & Pashchimanchal) is a proposed new state of India comprising the western parts of Uttar Pradesh state. Harit means Green which signifies the agricultural prosperity of the region and Pradesh means state. The region has some demographic, economic and cultural patterns that are distinct from other parts of Uttar Pradesh, and more closely resemble those of Haryana, Punjab and Rajasthan states.

Question No #86: Which one of the following is an incorrect pair?

Option A:Melting pot :USA

Option B:Boiling pot : Israel

Option C:Salad bowl : India

Option D:Fruit bowl: Uk

Answer : D

Explanation : The melting pot theory of diversity propagates a construct of diversity as monoculturalism, where the various groups are assimilated into one culture, often with the minority groups rejected or hiding their differences and unique attributes, to take on the characteristics of the dominant culture. Some countries are made of people who are almost all the same in terms of race, religion, and culture. Then there are places like the United States, where there are many different types of people. A place like that is a melting pot, because the people despite their – differences manage to coexist and live together as one nation. Anywhere diverse people are assimilated could be called a melting pot. In a melting pot, differences become less important than unity. The salad bowl (or fruit bowl) theory of diversity propagates a theory of pluralism, where differences between cultures are accepted, appreciated, celebrated and even utilized to create something stronger. There is still one entity (a salad) but the individual components (lettuce, tomatoes, carrots, cucumbers, etc.) are still distinguishable. In reality, the melting pot theory of diversity is not a theory of inclusion; it is more about exclusion of unique strengths and attributes.

Question No #87: Circulation of elites’ most closely refers to which one of the following?

Option A:Rotation of elites

Option B:Replacement of elites

Option C:Retention of elites

Option D:Restoration of elites

Answer : A

Explanation : Pareto’s thesis was that elites always rule. There is always the domination of the minority over the majority. And history is just the story of one elite replacing another. This is what he called the “circulation of elites”. When the current elite starts to decline, it is challenged and makes way for another. Pareto thought that this came about in two ways: either through assimilation, the new elite merging with elements of the old, or through revolution, the new elite wiping out the old. He used the metaphor of a river to make his point. Most of the time, the river flows continuously, smoothly incorporating its tributaries, but sometimes, after a storm, it floods and breaks its banks.

Question No #88: Which of the following is NOT a Violent Non- State Actor (VNSA)?

Option A:ISIS

Option B:Bokoharam

Option C:PLO

Option D:Hezobollah

Answer : C

Explanation : The Palestine Liberation Organization is an organization founded in 1964 with the purpose of the “liberation of Palestine” through armed struggle, with much of its violence aimed at Israeli civilians. It is recognized as the “sole legitimate representative of the Palestinian people” by over 100 states with which it holds diplomatic relations, and has enjoyed observer status at the United Nations since 1974. The PLO was considered by the United States and Israel to be a terrorist organization until the Madrid Conference in 1991. In 1993, the PLO recognized Israel’s right to exist in peace, accepted UN Security Council resolutions 242 and 338, and rejected “violence and terrorism”. In response, Israel officially recognized the PLO as the representative of the Palestinian people.

Question No #89: Which of the following Indian traditions is declared recently as ‘Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity’?

Option A:Kumbh

Option B:Yoga

Option C:Nouraz

Option D:Bihu

Answer : A

Explanation : The Intergovernmental Committee for the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage under UNESCO has inscribed ‘Kumbh Mela’ on the Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity during its 12th session being held at Jeju, South Korea from 4-9 December 2017. The inscription of ‘Kumbh Mela’ was recommended by the expert body which examines in detail the nominations submitted by Member States, according to a MEA note.The Committee observed that ‘Kumbh Mela’ is the largest peaceful congregation of pilgrims on earth. The festival, held in Allahabad, Haridwar, Ujjain and Nasik, represents a syncretic set of rituals related to worship and ritual cleansing in holy rivers in India. This inscription is the third in two years following the inscriptions of ‘Yoga’ and ‘Nouroz’.

Question No #90: In Samuel P. Huntington’s analysis, India is placed in which one of the ‘waves of demo-cratization’?

Option A:First wave

Option B:Second wave

Option C:Third wave

Option D:Fourth wave

Answer : B

Explanation : Samuel Huntington (1991) describes the pattern of global democratization as a series of three waves and reverse waves. The first wave of democratization started in the early 19th century and persisted until the 1920s, with many democracies backsliding at that time to autocracy (i.e., the first reverse wave). With the end of World War Two came a second wave of democratization. This wave was however relatively brief, with a large proportion of countries succumbing to autocracy in the 1950s and the remainder of the second reverse-wave of democratization. In the mid-1970s the third wave of democratization began, continuing in force through the 1990s with the end of the Cold War. Huntington’s analysis of these waves of democratization is based on the proportion of democratic regimes over time.

Question No #91: The Supreme Court of India has the power to adjudicate disputes between the Union and the States through

Option A:Appellate Jurisdiction

Option B:Original Jurisdiction

Option C:Advisory Jurisdiction

Option D:Writ Jurisdiction

Answer : B

Explanation : The Supreme Court of India has the power to adjudicate disputes between the Union and the states through original jurisdiction. As a federal court, the Supreme court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between- 1. The centre and one or more states; or 2. The centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or 3. Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.

Question No #92: Internal communication can be

Option A:upward only

Option B:downward only

Option C:upward and downward only

Option D:upward, downward and across

Answer : D

Explanation : Internal communication can be upward, downward and across. Internal communications (IC) is the function responsible for effective communications among participants within an organization. The scope of the function varies by organization and practitioner, from producing and delivering messages and campaigns on behalf of management, to facilitating two-way dialogue and developing the communication skills of the organization’s participants. Modern understanding of internal communications is a field of its own and draws on the theory and practice of related professions, not least journalism, knowledge management, public relations (e.g., media relations), marketing and human resources, as well as wider organizational studies, communication theory, social psychology, sociology and political science.

Question No #93: Who among the following predicted that bureaucracy is likely to go out of use in the wake of new social systems better suited to the 20th century demands of industrialization?

Option A:Warren Bennis

Option B:Max Weber

Option C:Peter Blau

Option D:Martin Albrow

Answer : A

Explanation : Warren Bennis predicted that bureaucracy is likely to go out of use in the wake of new social systems better suited to the 20th century demands of industrialization. Warren Gamaliel Bennis (March 8, 1925 – July 31, 2014) was an American scholar, organizational consultant and author, widely regarded as a pioneer of the contemporary field of Leadership studies. Bennis was University Professor and Distinguished Professor of Business Administration and Founding Chairman of The Leadership Institute at the University of Southern California.

Question No #94: “The poor are poor … not because of what they do not have, but because of what they cannot do.” Who said this?

Option A:Hans Singer

Option B:Amartya Sen

Option C:Mahboob ul Haq

Option D:Harsh Mander

Answer : B

Explanation : According to Amartya Sen, “the poor are poor not because of what they do not have, but because of what they cannot do”. Sen further said, “poverty is not just a lack of money; it is not having the capability to realize one’s full potential as a human being”. Sen is an Indian economist and philosopher. He has made contributions to welfare economics, social choice theory, economic and social justice, economic theories of famines, and indices of the measure of well-being of citizens of developing countries.

Question No #95: What is meant by the term ‘jus in bello’?

Option A:A just recourse to war

Option B:Restricted use of legitimate force

Option C:The just conduct of war

Option D:All of the above

Answer : C

Explanation : Jus ad bellum refers to the conditions under which States may resort to war or to the use of armed force in general. The prohibition against the use of force amongst States and the exceptions to it (self-defence and UN authorization for the use of force), set out in the United Nations Charter of 1945, are the core ingredients of jus ad bellum. Jus in bello regulates the conduct of parties engaged in an armed conflict. IHL( International humanitarian law) is synonymous with jus in bello; it seeks to minimize suffering in armed conflicts, notably by protecting and assisting all victims of armed conflict to the greatest extent possible. IHL applies to the belligerent parties irrespective of the reasons for the conflict or the justness of the causes for which they are fighting. If it were otherwise, implementing the law would be impossible, since every party would claim to be a victim of aggression. Moreover, IHL is intended to protect victims of armed conflicts regardless of party affiliation. That is why jus in bello must remain independent of jus ad bellum.

Question No #96: Madan Mohan Punchhi Commission was appointed to study

Option A:Centre-State Relations

Option B:State Reorganisation

Option C:Panchayati Raj

Option D:Delimitation of Constituencies

Answer : B

Explanation : The Punchhi Commission was constituted by the Government of India in 2007 as a commission on centre-state relations. It was chaired by Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi who was formerly the CJI. The commission came into effect on the 27th of April, 2007 to relook into the problems and issues in centre-State relations in India ever since these issues were earlier looked into by the Sarkaria Commission which had submitted its report in 1988. Composition of the Punchhi Commission: 1. Madan Mohan Punchhi Chairman 2. Dhirendra Singh Member 3. Vinod Kumar Duggal Member 4. N.R. Madhav Menon Member 5. Vijay Shanker Member Secretary 6. Amaresh Bagchi Member till the death. The commission had submitted its report to the then Home Minister of India, P. Chidambaram in March 2010. The commission submitted its, report in 7 volumes and 4 supplementary volumes.

Question No #97: India and EU have established which mechanism for furthering trade ties?

Option A:International Facilitation Mechanism

Option B:Investment Facilitation Mechanism

Option C:Global Facilitation Mechanism

Option D:EU-India Facilitation Mechanism

Answer : B

Explanation : European Union (EU) and India announced the establishment of an Investment Facilitation Mechanism (IFM) for EU Investments in India. The mechanism will allow for a close coordination between the European Union and the Government of India with an aim to promote and facilitate EU investment in India. This agreement builds on the Joint Statement of the 13th EU-India Summit held in Brussels in March 2016, where the EU had welcomed India’s readiness to establish such a mechanism and leaders from both sides had reaffirmed their shared commitment to oppose protectionism and to work in favour of a fair, transparent and rule-based trade and investment environment. As part of the IFM, the EU Delegation to India and the Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce & Industry, agreed to hold regular high level meetings to assess and facilitate “ease of doing business” for EU investors in India. This will include identifying and putting in place solutions to procedural impediments faced by EU companies and investors in establishing or running their operations in India.

Question No #98: Members of the Cabinet Mission Plan were:

Option A:Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A.V. Alexander

Option B:Sir Stafford Cripps, A.V. Alexander and Lord Wavell

Option C:Lord Pethick-Lawrence, A.V. Alexander and Lord Ripon

Option D:Sir Stafford Cripps., Lord Mountbatten and Lord Pethick-Lawrence

Answer : A

Explanation : On 22nd January 1946, the decision to send Cabinet Mission was taken and on 19th February 1946, the British PM C.R. Attlee Government announced in the House of Lords about the mission and the plan to quit India. A high-powered mission of three British Cabinet members- Lord Pethick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, and A.V. Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty reached Delhi on 24th March 1946. The main objective of Cabinet Mission was to find out ways and means for the peaceful transfer of power in India, to suggest measures for the formation of a Constitution making machinery and also to set up the Interim Government.

Question No #99: Which International Agreement gave for the ‘first time’ legally binding targets on reducing Greenhouse Emissions to the countries?

Option A:Copenhagen 2009

Option B:Kyoto Protocol 1997

Option C:Durban Conference 2011

Option D:Rio de Janerio 1992

Answer : B

Explanation : The Kyoto Protocol is an international agreement linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change, which commits its Parties by `setting internationally binding emission reduction targets. Recognizing that developed countries are principally responsible for the current high levels of GHG emissions in the atmosphere as a result of more than 150 years of industrial activity, the Protocol places a heavier burden on developed nations under the principle of “common but differentiated responsibilities.” The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997 and entered into force on 16 February 2005. The detailed rules for the implementation of the Protocol were adopted at COP 7 in Marrakesh, Morocco, in 2001, and are referred to as the “Marrakesh Accords.”

Question No #100: Which one of the following is the Nodal Ministry for the National Human Rights Commission?

Option A:Ministry of Human Resource Development

Option B:Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

Option C:Ministry of Home Affairs

Option D:Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Answer : C

Explanation : Ministry of Home Affairs is the Nodal Ministry for the NHRC. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October, 1993. The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. It is in conformity with the Paris Principles, adopted at the first international workshop on national institutions for the promotion and protection of human rights held in Paris in October 1991, and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations by its Regulations 48/134 of 20 December, 1993. The NHRC is an embodiment of India’s concern for the promotion and protection of human rights. Section 2(1)(d) of the PHRA defines Human Rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.