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MCQ Questions Based On Paper1 CBSE UGC NET EXAM JUNE 2014 [Solved]

Solved Paper of UGC NET EXAM June 2014 Exam

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MCQ Previous Papers UGC NET Solved Paper 1 June 2013

Please find below 60 MCQ of Teaching Aptitude Question Based on UGC NET Solved Paper 1 June 2013 UGC NET exam. Answer of All those has been provided below the question.

**We have tried to compile the best answer, however, if you find any answer in incorrect , please feel free to comment we will be more than happy to modify same.

Questions along with Answers Below – Explanations are always welcome

1.’ ‘www’ stands for
(A) work with web

MCQ Previous Papers UGC NET Solved Paper 1 June 2014

Please find below 60 MCQ of Teaching Aptitude Question Based on UGC NET Solved Paper 1 June 2014 UGC NET exam.

**We have tried to compile the best answer, however, if you find any answer in incorrect, please feel free to comment we will be more than happy to modify same.

Questions along with Answers Below – Explanations are always welcome

1. Which of the following are Central Universities?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1,2 and 4

See Answer –  (A) 1,2 and 3

2. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by TamilNadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii
(B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii
(D) i and iv

3. Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning Commission?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary

See Answer –  (B) Deputy Chairman 

4. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers

Answer – (C) Concurrent List

5. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in the bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer – (A) Only argument (i) is strong.

6. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta-university concept?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University

Answer – (B) Delhi University

7. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and3 (D) 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer – (C) 1,2 and3

8. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open University

Answer – (B) Consortium for Educational Communication

9. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective

Answer – (B) cognitive

10. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes

Answer – (A) Students asking questions

11. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration

Answer – (C) Demonstration

12. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder

Answer – (C) reading disorder

13. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm

Answer – (D) interpretative paradigm

14. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling?
(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified

Answer – (B) Purposive

15. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic (C) Formative (D) Summative

Answer – (C) Formative

16. The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research

Answer – (B) Action research

17. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright

Answer – (C) Thomas Kuhn

18. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself

Answer – (D) the text itself

19. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion

Answer – (C) an assertion

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 20 to 24 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’, The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members
of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’ above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern
Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

20. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.

Answer – (D) European perception of Indian State.

21. What is the striking feature of modern India?
(A) A replica of Utopian State
(B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values
(D) Absence of Bigotry

Answer – (D) Absence of Bigotry

22. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.

Answer – (B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and politicalsense

23. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A) The antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B) The absence of conflict between the state and the individuals up to a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.

Answer – (B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals up to a point in time.

24. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law

Answer – (A) No discrimination on religious considerations

25. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure (C) decode (D) change

See Answer
(C) decode

26. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
(A) sparks (B) green dots (C) snow (D) raindrops

Answer - (C) snow

27. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
(A) noise
(B) audience
(C) criticality
(D) feedback

Answer - (D) feedback

28. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy

Answer - (D) Entropy

29. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory

Answer - (D) Information theory

30. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) KaranJohar
(B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle
(D) Gulzar

Answer - (D) Gulzar

31. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ………..by choosing one of the following option given:
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) RS (D) SR

Answer - (A) TS

32. A man started walking from his house towards the south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?
(A) 3km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km

Answer - (C) 5 km

33. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of rs7, rs 8, rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 23 (D) 29

Answer - (A)19

34. In the certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM

Answer - (C)

35. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22,…. is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) 35

Answer - (C)33

36. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) sub-contrary
(D) subaltern

Answer - (C)

37. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38

Answer - (A)32

38. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength.” The argument put above may be called as
(A) Analogical (B) Deductive
(C) Statistical (D) Causal

Answer - (A)Analogical

39. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on a causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.

Answer - (C)

40. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q, r, s … represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.
Codes:
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only

Answer - (B) s only

41. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions:
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)

Answer - (C)

Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions from 42 to 46 : Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)

Year Government Canals Private Canals Tanks Tube Wells & Other Other Sources Total
1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411
1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109
2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076
2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672
2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778
2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618
2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867
2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196

42. Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of the Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources

Answer - (A)

43. In which of the following years, the share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05

Answer - (C) 

44. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources

Answer - (C) 

45. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered die maximum improvement in terms of percentage of the Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources

Answer - (D) 

46. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?
(A) 1998-99 (C) 2003-04
(B) 2000-01 (D) 2005-06

Answer - (D) 

47. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM            (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM     (D) TCP

Answer - (B) 

48. Which one of the following is not. the same as the other three?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address

Answer - (D)

49. Identify the IP address from the following:
(A) 300-215 -317-3
(B) 302-215@ 417 -5
(C) 202 . 50 . 20 . 148
(D) 202-50-20-148

Answer - (C)

50. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure

Answer - (A)

51. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphics file format?
(A) PNG           (B) GIF
(C) BMP           (D)GUI

Answer - (D) 

52. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox

Answer - (C) 

53. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A) the eruption of a large amount of material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves

Answer - (A) 

54. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 MegaJoules. If this consumption is met by carbon-based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 x 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons

55. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times ?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing

Answer - (D) 

56. The primary source of organic pollution in freshwater bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents

Answer - (C) 

57. Which one of the following greenhouse gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide

Answer - (C) 

58. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of the earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5°C to 2°C
(B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C
(C) 0.5°C to l0°C
(D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C

Answer - (A) 

59. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence

Answer - (C) 

60. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List -1                            List – II
a. Flood                        1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b. Drought                   2. Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
c. Earthquake             3. Avent through which moulted substances come out
d. Volcano                   4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water

Codes:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2

Answer - (A) 

 

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(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web

Answer -  (C) world wide web

2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters (B) Sectors(C) Vectors (D) Head

Answer - (B) Sectors

3. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a / an
(A) Compiler (B) Simulator (C) Translator (D) Interpreter

Answer -  (D) Interpreter

4. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes

Answer - (A) 1024 Megabytes

S. A Compiler is software which converts
(A). Characters to bits.
(B) High level language to machine language.
(C) Machine language to high level language
(D) Words to bits

Answer - (B) High level language to machine language.

6. Virtual memory
(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.

Answer - (C) an illusion of extremely large main memory

7. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons” is in the context of
(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release’ of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources
(D) climate change

Answer - (C) degradation of renewable free access resources

8. ‘Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion’
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear-energy

Answer - (C) Climate change

9. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers

Answer - (A) Transport sector/su_spoiler]

10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of
(A) Oxides Of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

Answer - (B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons

11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(A) Earth quakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods

Answer - (D) Droughts and Floods

12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India
is around
(A) 2 – 3 % (B) 22-25% (C) l0-12% (D) < 1%

Answer -  (C) l0-12%

13. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in 2010 – 11 was
beyond the percentage Of seats reserved ?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Woman students

Answer -  (A) OBC students

14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956~by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities

Answer -  (D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities

15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II)
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong;
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer - (C) Both the arguments are strong.

16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

Answer - Yes, it will decriminalise politics.

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2and3 (B) 1,3and4
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4

Answer - (D) 1 and 4

18. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers

Answer - (C) The Prime Minister

19. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself

Answer - (C) Writing the important and notable points

20. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-Learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer - Note: Both C & D are correct

21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.

Answer - (D) can deal with children with love and affection.

22. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning

Answer - (D) Conditioned-reflex learning

23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.

Answer - (B) commands respect from students.

24. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words” The statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too, much in the class.

Answer - (C) use teaching aids in the class.

25. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.

Answer - (C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.

26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review’ of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons, in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper

Answer - (B) Conducting a review’ of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.

27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling

Answer - (C) Quota Sampling

28. Which one of the following references is written as per Modem Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi, – Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

Answer - (D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

29. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

Answer - (D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

30. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research
(D) a scientific theory

Answer - (C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36):

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Il1urninated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara). Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains ‘were temporarily buried. by the grief  stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the nver Tapti. SIX months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the- Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant, farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently. Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

31 Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur  (B) Makrana
(C) Amber         (D) Jaipur

Answer - (B) Makrana

32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan         (B) Tourists
(C) Public                    (D) European travelers

Answer - (D) European travelers

33. Point out the true statement from the following.
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sandstone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh..
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.

Answer - (C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.

34. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A). Mumtazabad      (B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad               (D)Rauza-i-Munavvara.

Answer - (D)Rauza-i-Munavvara.

35. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D.          (B) 1630 – 1643A.D.
(C) 1632 -1643 A.D. (D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.

Answer - (C) 1632 -1643 A.D

36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None oft he above

Answer - (A) Farman

37. In the process of Communication, which one Of the following is in the chronological order ?
(A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

Answer - (C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect

38. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) AO Hume

Answer - (B) James Augustus Hicky

39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A)Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda

Answer - (C) Indira Gandhi

40 Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive Communication
(C) Development Communication
(D) Communitarian

Answer - (B) Interactive Communication

41 Classroom communication of a teacher rest on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment

Answer - (B) Edutainment

42 ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his / her student
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy

Answer - (B) Empathy

43. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC.     TIGER will be represented by
(A) UJHFS     (B) UHJSF
(C) JHUSF     (D) HUJSF

Answer - (A) UJHFS 

44. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The, number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8       (B) 10
(C) 12     (D) 14

Answer - (B) 10

45. The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110    (B) 270
(C) 105    (D) 210

Answer - (B) 270

46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(A) 18   (B) 24
(C) 33  (D) 36

Answer - (C) 33 

47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(A) 30           (B) 85/2
(C) 170/3     (D) 110

Answer - (D) 110

48. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
(A) 20% (B) 30%
(C) 40% (D) 50%

Answer - (D) 50%

49. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true Choose the correct code given below
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest
(iv) All men are dishonest

Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)

Answer - (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

50 Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?
(A) Intelligence (B) Marks
(C) Lessons (D) Wisdom

Answer - (D) Wisdom

51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P, If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law

Answer - (B) Sister-in-law

52. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A)Lexical (B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative (D)Precisions

Answer - (B) Persuasive

53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism

Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i) (ii) &(iv)
(C) (ii) (iii)& (iv)
(D) (i) (iii) &(iv)

Answer - (B) (i) (ii) &(iv)

54. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) Unity in human nature
(B) Integrity in human nature
(C) Uniformity in human nature
(D) Harmony in human nature

Answer - (C) Uniformity in human nature

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 55 to 60 :

Area under Major Horticulture Crop (in lakh hectares)

Year Fruits Vegetables Flowers Total Horticulture
Area
2005-06 53 72 1 187
2006-07 56 75 1 194
2007-08 58 78 2 202
2008-09 61 79 2 207
2009-10 63 79 2 209

55. Which of the following, two year have recorded the highest rate increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08

Answer - (D) 2006-07 & 2007-08

56. Shares of the area under flower vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent

Answer - (A) 1, 38 and 30 percent

57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in are during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture

Answer - (C) Flowers

58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture

Answer - (B) Vegetables

59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?
(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent

Answer - (B) 68 percent

60 In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10

Answer - (A) 2006-07

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  1. Yogamani says

    Net exam question answer

  2. Sanjoy Mudi says

    Q no. 2 & 60 Answers are missing plz correct them@Admin

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