MCQ Previous Papers CBSE UGC NET Solved Paper 1 Dec 2015
Please find below 60 MCQ of Teaching Aptitude Question Based on CBSE UGC NET Solved Paper 1 Dec 2015 UGC NET exam. Answer of All those have been provided below the question.
Questions along with Answers Below – Explanations are also given where ever it is required
1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the :
(1) Family
(2) Society
(3) Teacher
(4) State
Answer : (3) Teacher
2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation ?
(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.
(b) It replaces marks with grades.
(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.
(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) (b) (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) (b) and (c) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer : (4) (b), (c) and (d)
Explanations-
Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation (CCE) refers to a system of school-based evaluation of students that covers all aspects of students’ development. It is a developmental process of assessment which emphasizes on two fold objectives. These objectives are continuity in evaluation and assessment of broad based learning and behaviourial outcomes on the other.
In this scheme the term `continuous’ is meant to emphasise that evaluation of identified aspects of students’ `growth and development’ is a continuous process rather than an event, built into the total teaching-learning process and spread over the entire span of academic
session. It means regularity of assessment, frequency of unittesting, diagnosis of learning gaps, use of corrective measures, retesting and for their self evaluation.
The second term `comprehensive’ means that the scheme attempts to cover both the scholastic and the coscholastic aspects of students’ growth and development
3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher ?
(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management
(b) Setting examples
(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test
(d) Acknowledging mistakes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (C) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer : (2) (b), (c) and (d)
4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple – choice type questions ?
(1) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
(2) They are less objective than essay type questions.
(3) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.
(4) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.
Answer : (1) They are more objective than true-false type questions.
5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled :
(1) International Commission on Education Report
(2) Millennium Development Report
(3) Learning : The Treasure Within
(4) World Declaration on Education for All
Answer : (3) Learning : The Treasure Within
6. What are required for good teaching ?
(a) Diagnosis
(b) Remedy
(c) Direction
(d) Feedback
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (c) and (d)
Answer : (1)
7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research ?
(1) It recognizes knowledge as power.
(2) It emphasises on people as experts.
(3) It is a collective process of enquiry.
(4) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge,
Answer : (4)
8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis ?
(1) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.
(2) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.
(3) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.
(4) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.
Answer : (2)
Explanations- Hypothesis testing involves the careful construction of two statements: the null hypothesis and the alternative hypothesis. These hypotheses can look very similar but are actually different.
The null hypothesis reflects that there will be no observed effect in our experiment. In a mathematical formulation of the null hypothesis, there will typically be an equal sign. This hypothesis is denoted by H0.
The alternative or experimental hypothesis reflects that there will be an observed effect for our experiment. In a mathematical formulation of the alternative hypothesis, there will typically be an inequality, or not equal to symbol. This hypothesis is denoted by either Ha or by H1.
Lets take example to understand –
One place where you can consistently see the general idea of hypothesis testing in action is in criminal trials held in the United States. Our criminal justice system assumes “the defendant is innocent until proven guilty.” That is, our initial assumption is that the defendant is innocent.
In the practice of statistics, we make our initial assumption when we state our two competing hypotheses — the null hypothesis (H0) and the alternative hypothesis (HA). Here, our hypotheses are:
- H0: Defendant is not guilty (innocent)
- HA: Defendant is guilty
In statistics, we always assume the null hypothesis is true. That is, the null hypothesis is always our initial assumption.
The prosecution team then collects evidence — such as finger prints, blood spots, hair samples, carpet fibers, shoe prints, ransom notes, and handwriting samples — with the hopes of finding “sufficient evidence” to make the assumption of innocence refutable.
In statistics, the data are the evidence.
The jury then makes a decision based on the available evidence:
- If the jury finds sufficient evidence — beyond a reasonable doubt — to make the assumption of innocence refutable, the jury rejects the null hypothesis and deems the defendant guilty. We behave as if the defendant is guilty.
- If there is insufficient evidence, then the jury does not reject the null hypothesis. We behave as if the defendant is innocent.
In statistics, we always make one of two decisions. We either “reject the null hypothesis” or we “fail to reject the null hypothesis.”
i.e Only null hypothesis is tested.
9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format ?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays
(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals
(d) Alphabetically index reference list
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer : (2)
Explanations- APA format is the official style of the American Psychological Association(APA) and is commonly used to cite sources in psychology, education, and the social sciences.
APA format structure:
Author, A. (Year of Publication). Title of work. Publisher City, State: Publisher.
APA format example:
Finney, J. (1970). Time and again. New York, NY: Simon and Schuster.
Notes: When citing a book in APA, keep in mind:
- Invert Author Name
- Capitalize the first letter of the first word of the title and any subtitles, as well as the first letter of any proper nouns.
- The full title of the book, including any subtitles, should be stated and italicized.
10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar ?
(a) It is a form of academic instruction.
(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.
(c) It involves large groups of individuals.
(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer : (4)
11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study ?
(1) Rating scale (2) Interview (3) Questionnaire (4) Schedule
Answer : (3)
12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for :
(1) Thesis format (2) Copyright
(3) Patenting policy (4) Data sharing policies
Answer : (1) Thesis format
Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 to 17.
It was then that I realised, to my horror, that 1 had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.
A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years – old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.
Bic, have you heard of mobile phones ? Have you heard of e-mail, Facebook and snap chatting ? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.
“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”
Answer the following questions :
13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean ?
(1) A slate of confusion (2) A state of pleasure
(3) A state of anxiety (4) A state of pain
Answer : (1) A slate of confusion
14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit ?
(I) Handwriting (2) Photography
(3) Sketching (4) Reading
Answer : (4) Reading
15. The entire existence of the author revolves round :
(a) Computer
(b) Mobile phone
(c) Typewrite?
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (b) only (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (c) only
Answer : (2) (a) and (b) only
16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen ?
(1) 800 (2) 560 (3) 500 (4) 100
Answer : (4) 100
17. What is the mam concern of the author ?
(1) That the teens use social networks for communication.
(2) that the teens use mobile phones.
(3) That the teens use computer.
(4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
Answer : (4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.
18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are :
(a) To gather information about student weaken.
(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.
(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of leaching.
(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) (a) only
Answer : (2) (b), (c) and (d) only
Explanations-
Student Evaluation of Teaching (SET)- SET is one of several mechanisms for improving teaching and learning, Measuring quality in the classroom is a challenging but crucial factor in the development of any education system and its improvement –
Read more about – https://www.britishcouncil.in/sites/default/files/exploring_teacher_evaluation_processes_and_practices_in_india_-_a_case_study_final.pdf
19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as :
(1) Systemisation (2) Problem – orientation
(3) Idea protocol (4) Mind mapping
Answer : (4) Mind mapping
20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :
(1) Physical language (2) Personal language
(3) Para language (4) Delivery language
Answer : (3) Para language
21. Every type of communication is affected by its :
(1) Reception (2) Transmission (3) Non-regulation (4) Context
Answer : (4) Context
Explanations- Every message (Oral or written), begins with context. Context is a very broad field that consists different aspects. One aspect is country, culture and organization. Every organization, culture and country communicate information in their own way.Another aspect of context is external stimulus. The sources of external stimulus includes; meeting, letter, memo, telephone call, fax, note, email and even a casual conversation. This external stimuli motivates you to respond and this response may be oral or written.
Internal stimuli is another aspect of communication. Internal Stimuli includes; You opinion, attitude, likes, dis-likes, emotions, experience, education and confidence. These all have multifaceted influence on the way you communicate you ideas.
22. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as :
(1) Verbal (2) Non-verbal (3) Impersonal (4) Irrational
Answer : (2) Non-verbal
23. Most often, the teacher – student communication is :
(1) Spurious (2) Critical (3) Utilitarian (4) Confrontational
Answer : (3) Utilitarian
24. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by :
(1) the use of hyperbole (2) the change of voice level
(3) the use of abstract concepts (4) eye contact
Answer : (4) eye contact
25. The next term in the Series
2,5,10,17,26, 37, ? is :
(1) 50 (2) 57 (3) 62 (4) 72
Answer : (1) 50
Explanations –
In the given series each term in growing in (+3, +5 ,+7, +9, +11, +13 — Hence next term will be 37 + 13 = 50 )
26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3 rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be;
(1) 80 (2) 76 (3) 74 (4) 72
Answer : (4) 72
Explanations – This Question was based on combined mean is a mean of two or more separate groups, and is found by :
- Calculating the mean of each group,
- Combining the results.
Using formula , X12 = (x1n1 + x2n2)/n where x1 and x2 are arithmetic mean of two groups and n1 and n2 are their frequencies. while n is total no of frequency.
Hence ;( 60*70 +78 *140)/210 = 72 (Answer)
27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right; and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is :
(1) 20 km (2) 11 km (3) 12 km (4) 10 km
Answer : (4) 10 km
Explanations – This Question was based on Pythagoras theorem pretty straight forward .
Sqrt(6^2 + 8^2)= 10 KM
28. The next term m the series :
B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ? is
(1) J561 (2) I62Q (3) Q62J (4) J58Q
Answer : (4) J58Q
29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is :
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 18 (4) 24
Answer : (2) 14
30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as :
(1) Son (2) Brother (3) Uncle (4) Father
Answer : (3) Uncle
31. Consider the argument given below ;
‘Pre – employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors; architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’
What type of argument it is ?
(1) Deductive (2) Analogical (3) Psychological (4) Biological
Answer : (2) Analogical
32. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way thai they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code.
Propositions :
(a) Some priests are cunning.
(b) No priest is cunning.
(c) All priests are cunning.
(d) Some priests are not cunning.
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
Answer : (4) (a) and (d)
33. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called :
(1) An inference (2) An argument
(3) An explanation (4) A valid argument
Answer : (2) An argument
34. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below :
(A) : No man is perfect.
(R) : Some men are not perfect.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).
35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called :
(1) Lexical (2) Precising (3) Stipulative (4) Persuasive
Answer : (3) Stipulative
36. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/ propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?
Propositions :
(1) All men are honest (2) Some men are honest
(3) Some men are not honest (4) No honest person is man
Answer : (2) Some men are honest
Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.
| Year | Population (million) | Electrical Power Production (GW)* |
|---|---|---|
| 1951 | 20 | 10 |
| 1961 | 21 | 20 |
| 1971 | 24 | 25 |
| 1981 | 27 | 40 |
| 1991 | 30 | 50 |
| 2001 | 32 | 80 |
| 2011 | 35 | 100 |
| * 1 GW = 1000 Million Watt |
Based on the above table, answer the questions from SI. No. 37 to 42.
Check – Solving Tricks For Data Interpretation Questions In NET EXAM–
37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population ?
(1) 1961-71 (2) 1971-81 (3) 1991-2001 (4) 2001-2011
Answer : (1) 1961-71
for 1961-71 growth was 24-21/21 *100 = 14.28 %
38. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is :
(1) ~12.21% (2) ~9.82% (3) ~6.73% (4) ~ 5%
Answer : (2) ~9.82%
39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021 ?
(1) 40.34 million (2) 38.49 million
(3) 37.28 million (4) 36.62 million
Answer : (2) 38.49 million
40. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person ?
(1) 100 W (2) 200 W (3) 400 W (4) 500 W
Answer : (4) 500 W
41. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum ?
(1) 1981-1991 (2) 1991-2001 (3) 2001-2011 (4) 1971-1981
Answer : (3) 2001-2011
42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011 ?
(1) 100% (2) 300% (3) 600% (4) 900%
Answer : (4) 900%
43. NMEICT stands for :
(1) National Mission on Education through ICT
(2) National Mission on E-govemance through ICT
(3) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT
(4) National Mission on E-learning through ICT
Answer : (1) National Mission on Education through ICT
44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application ?
(a) WhatsApp
(b) Google Talk
(c) Viber
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer : (4) (a), (b) and (c)
45. In a Computer a byte generally consists of :
(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits (3) 16 bits (4) 10 bits
Answer : (2) 8 bits
46. Which of the following is not an input device ?
(1) Microphone (2) Keyboard (3) Joystick (4) Monitor
Answer : (4) Monitor
47. Which of the following is an open source software ?
(1) MS Word (2) Windows
(3) Mozilla Firefox (4) Acrobat Reader
Answer : (3) Mozilla Firefox
48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word
(1) Mail join (2) Mail copy
(3) Mail insert (4) Mail merge
Answer : (4) Mail merge
49. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be :
(a) Unvented gas stoves
(b) Wood stoves
(c) Kerosene heaters
Choose the correct code :
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer : (4) (a), (b) and (c)
50. Which ot the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans ?
(1) Pesticides (2) Mercury (3) Lead (4) Ozone
Answer : (2) Mercury
51. Assertion (A) : People population control measures do no! necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.
Reason (R) : The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard ?
(1) Wildfire (2) Lightning
(3) Landslide (4) Chemical contamination
Answer : (4) Chemical contamination
53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to :
(1) 175 GW (2) 200 GW (3) 250 GW (4) 350 GW
Answer : (4) 350 GW
Explanations- As part of the Paris Climate agreement, India had committed to produce 40% of its installed electricity capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030. This would translate to around 350 GW by 2030, pushing the country’s expected total capacity to 850 GW power generation capacity.
India has set itself a target of adding 175 GW renewable energy capacity by 2022, which Singh recently said that the government will ‘over-achieve’, instead adding 227 GW within the same timeline. Currently, renewables account for around 20% of the country’s total installed capacity.
54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.
(1) Brazil > Russia > China > India
(2) Russia > China > India > Brazil
(3) Russia > China > Brazil > India
(4) China > Russia > Brazil > India
Answer : (3) Russia > China > Brazil > India
**https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_electricity_consumption
55. Which of the following are the objectives of Kashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhivan (RUSA) ?
(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.
(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.
(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.
(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer : (2) (a), (b) and (c)
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are :
(a) Religion
(b) Sex
(c) Place of birth
(d) Nationality
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer : (2) (a), (b) and (c)
57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha ?
(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.
(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.
(c) First – past – the Post electoral system is followed.
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b); (c) and (d)
Answer : (1) (a) and (c)
58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in :
(1) the Union List (2) the State List
(3) the Concurrent List (4) the Residuary Powers
Answer : (2) the State List
59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is :
(1) 4 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
(4) not fixed
Answer : (4) not fixed
Explanations-The Advocate General of a State is a Constitutional post and authority duly appointed as per Article 165 of the Constitution of India. The authority and function of Advocate General is also specified in the Constitution of India under Article 165 and 177.
Article 165: Advocate General for the State
- The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be Advocate General for the State.
- It shall be the duty of the Advocate General to give advice to the Government of concerned State upon such legal matters and to perform such other duties of a legal character; as may from time to time be referred or assigned to him by the Governor and to discharge the functions conferred on him by or under this constitution or any other law for the time being in force.
- The Advocate General shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor, and shall receive such remuneration as the governor may determine.
60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Rajasthan (3) Tamil Nadu (4) West Bengal
Answer : (1) Maharashtra
Explanations-
The Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India, is made up of Members of Parliament (MPs). Each MP, represents a single geographic constituency. There are currently 543 constituencies.
The maximum size of the Lok Sabha as outlined in the Constitution of India is 552 members made up of up to 530 members representing people of the states of India and up to 20 members representing people from the Union Territories on the basis of their population and 2 Anglo-Indians are nominated by President.
List of Indian States That Have The Highest Number of Lok Sabha Seats
State/Union Territory
Number of Parliamentary seats
- Uttar Pradesh – > 80
- Maharashtra -> 48
- Rajasthan -> 25
- West Bengal-> 42
- Tamil Nadu ->39
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